Test-5 2025
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Information
- Format: Online – From Home
- Total # of MCQs: 180
Biology = 81 + Physics = 36 + Chemistry = 45 + English = 9 + Logical Reasoning = 9 - Time Duration : 180 Minute (3 hours)
The Test is Programmed with Time Restriction, Which will Teach you Time Management. - No Negative Marking
So, Attempt all the Questions. - Kindly keep some rough pages and pen with you for rough work
- The Explanations of all the MCQ’s will be provided to you with Your Right & Wrong Answers on completion of this Test.
- Bismillah & Darood Sharif Phr k, Start your Test/Quiz, and Attempt it with Full Concentration.
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- Answered
- Review
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Question 1 of 180
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsTwo rain drops reach the earth with different terminal velocities having ratio 9 : 4. Then the ratio of their volumes is
Correct
Explanation: D
Incorrect
Explanation: D

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Question 2 of 180
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsWhich of the following pairs of vectors are parallel
Correct
Explanation: D
Incorrect
Explanation: D

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Question 3 of 180
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsThe range of a projectile is 40 m when projected at an angle of 30° with the horizontal. What would be the range if the projectile is launched at an angle of 60° with the same initial speed?
Correct
Explanation: C
Angles 30° and 60° give the same range
30° + 60° =90°
Complementary Angles Give the Same Range.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Angles 30° and 60° give the same range
30° + 60° =90°
Complementary Angles Give the Same Range. -
Question 4 of 180
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsTwo circular bodies having radius R1 > R2 are rolled through same horizontal distance, then we can say that:
A. 1st body will cover more angular displacement
B. 1st body will cover less angular displacement
C. Both bodies will cover same angular displacement
D. None of theseCorrect
Explanation: B
Incorrect
Explanation: B

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Question 5 of 180
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsEquation for maximum Kinetic energy of mass spring system is _________. (Where X = displacement and Xo = amplitude):
A. 1/2 k(X0 – X)
B. 1/2 k(Xo2 – X2)
C. 1/2 kXo2
D. 1/2 kX2Correct
Explanation: C
For maximum KE X = 0, therefore KE max = 1/2 kXo2.Incorrect
Explanation: C
For maximum KE X = 0, therefore KE max = 1/2 kXo2. -
Question 6 of 180
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsTwo sound waves have a path difference of 0.5 m and a frequency of 660 Hz. What type of interference will be heard if the speed of sound is 330 m/s?
Correct
Explanation A
Incorrect
Explanation A

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Question 7 of 180
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsThe value of CP – CV = 1.00R for a gas in state A and CP – CV = 1.6R in another state B. If PA and PB denote the pressure and TA and TB denote the temperatures in the two states, then
A. PA = PB , TA > TB
B. PA > PB , TA = TB
C. PA < PB , TA > TB
D. PA > PB , TA < TBCorrect
Explanation: C
We have the following two states:
For state A: CP – CV = R, that is, the gas behaves as ideal gas.
For state B: CP – CV = 1.6R, (≠ R), this implies non-ideal behavior of gas.
Ideal gas behavior is typically observed at:
High temperature
Low pressure
Thus, we can say that PA < PB and TA > TB.Incorrect
Explanation: C
We have the following two states:
For state A: CP – CV = R, that is, the gas behaves as ideal gas.
For state B: CP – CV = 1.6R, (≠ R), this implies non-ideal behavior of gas.
Ideal gas behavior is typically observed at:
High temperature
Low pressure
Thus, we can say that PA < PB and TA > TB. -
Question 8 of 180
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsTwo girls weighting in the ratio 4:5 goes up stairs taking time in the ratio 5:4, the ratio of their power is
Correct
Explanation C
Incorrect
Explanation C

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Question 9 of 180
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsWhich of the following is true regarding acceleration a(1), a(2) and a(3) for the graph given below (assume that the object is moving in a straight line),
Correct
Explanation: D
Note: V-t graph is very important regarding entry test point of view
a(1): The tangent line is sloping upward from left to right ⇒ positive slope ⇒ positive acceleration
a(2): The tangent is flat (horizontal) ⇒ zero slope ⇒ zero acceleration
a(3): The tangent is sloping downward ⇒ negative slope ⇒ negative acceleration
a(1)>0 (positive)
a(2)=0
a(3)<0 (negative)Incorrect
Explanation: D
Note: V-t graph is very important regarding entry test point of view
a(1): The tangent line is sloping upward from left to right ⇒ positive slope ⇒ positive acceleration
a(2): The tangent is flat (horizontal) ⇒ zero slope ⇒ zero acceleration
a(3): The tangent is sloping downward ⇒ negative slope ⇒ negative acceleration
a(1)>0 (positive)
a(2)=0
a(3)<0 (negative) -
Question 10 of 180
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: Physics
Correct
Explanation: B
Incorrect
Explanation: B

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Question 11 of 180
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsA horizontal pipeline caries water in a streamline flow. At a point along the pipe, where the cross-sectional area is 10 cm2, the water velocity is 1 ms–1 and the pressure is 2000 Pa. The pressure of water at another point where the cross-sectional area is 5 cm2 is _________________.
Correct
Explanation: D
Incorrect
Explanation: D

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Question 12 of 180
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsTwo identical balls A and B collide head-on elastically. If velocities of A and B, before the collision are +0.5 ms–1 and –0.3 ms–1, respectively, then their velocities, after the collision, respectively, are
A. –0.5 m s–1 and +0.3 m s–1.
B. +0.5 m s–1 and +0.3 m s–1.
C. +0.3 m s–1and –0.5 m s–1 .
D. –0.3 m s–1and +0.5 m s–1 .Correct
Explanation: D
The velocities are interchanged in case of head-on elastic collision of identical masses. Hence, option (D) is correct.Incorrect
Explanation: D
The velocities are interchanged in case of head-on elastic collision of identical masses. Hence, option (D) is correct. -
Question 13 of 180
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsAngular velocity of a table fan is directed towards west, but when it is turned off its angular acceleration will be directed towards:
Correct
Explanation: A
When angular velocity is increasing:
Angular acceleration is in the same direction as angular velocity.
Angle between angular velocity and angular acceleration = 0°
When angular velocity is decreasing:
Angular acceleration is opposite to the direction of angular velocity.
Angle between angular velocity and angular acceleration = 180°Incorrect
Explanation: A
When angular velocity is increasing:
Angular acceleration is in the same direction as angular velocity.
Angle between angular velocity and angular acceleration = 0°
When angular velocity is decreasing:
Angular acceleration is opposite to the direction of angular velocity.
Angle between angular velocity and angular acceleration = 180° -
Question 14 of 180
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsWhich of the following equation can be used to find velocity of sound wave?
Correct
Explanation: D
Incorrect
Explanation: D

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Question 15 of 180
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsDuring an isothermal expansion of an ideal gas
Correct
Explanation: D
During isothermal change, T = constant ⇒ ΔU = 0.
Also, from the first law of thermodynamics, ΔQ = ΔW.Incorrect
Explanation: D
During isothermal change, T = constant ⇒ ΔU = 0.
Also, from the first law of thermodynamics, ΔQ = ΔW. -
Question 16 of 180
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsA solid sphere falls with a terminal velocity v in CO2 gas. If it is allowed to fall in vacuum, then:
Correct
Explanation: D
Terminal velocity is reached when net force becomes zero:
Weight =Air drag (resistance)
This only happens in a fluid or gas, like air or CO₂, where resistance opposes motion.
Now in Vacuum, there will be no buoyant force or viscous drag force.
So the object falls freely under gravity, accelerating continuously until hit the ground or any other object. So, sphere never attains terminal velocity.Incorrect
Explanation: D
Terminal velocity is reached when net force becomes zero:
Weight =Air drag (resistance)
This only happens in a fluid or gas, like air or CO₂, where resistance opposes motion.
Now in Vacuum, there will be no buoyant force or viscous drag force.
So the object falls freely under gravity, accelerating continuously until hit the ground or any other object. So, sphere never attains terminal velocity. -
Question 17 of 180
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsIf two vectors of equal magnitude have an angle θ between them, then the resultant magnitude is given by:
Correct
Explanation: C
Incorrect
Explanation: C

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Question 18 of 180
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsA projectile thrown at an angle of 60 degrees have a velocity of 10m/s on top of its motion, then the final velocity of this projectile will be:
Correct
Explanation: C
Incorrect
Explanation: C

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Question 19 of 180
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsA ball of mass 10kg is dropped from a height of 10m, If it falls with Kinetic energy of 900J, then work done against air resistance is:
Correct
Explanation: B
PE = KE + Wfriction,
mgh = KE + W,
10 × 10 × 10 = 900 + W,
W = 1000 – 900 = 100J.Incorrect
Explanation: B
PE = KE + Wfriction,
mgh = KE + W,
10 × 10 × 10 = 900 + W,
W = 1000 – 900 = 100J. -
Question 20 of 180
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsDimensions of angular frequency are similar to:
Correct
Explanation: D
All of the mentioned quantities have same dimensions i.e. [T–1].
Angular frequency (ω)
• Defined as: ω = 2πf
• Dimensions of frequency f = [T–1]
• So, angular frequency also has dimensions = [T–1]
A. Angular velocity (ω)
• Even though the name differs, angular velocity and angular frequency have identical units and dimensions:
→ [T–1] (radians per second is dimensionless angle per time)
B. Decay constant (λ)
• From nuclear/radioactive decay law: N = N₀e(–λt)
• To make the exponent dimensionless, λ must have units of 1/time, i.e.,
→ Dimensions: [T⁻¹]
C. Frequency (f)
• Already established:
→ Dimensions: [T–1]
D. All of these
• Since all three quantities have the same dimensions: [T–1],
→ Correct answer is D.Incorrect
Explanation: D
All of the mentioned quantities have same dimensions i.e. [T–1].
Angular frequency (ω)
• Defined as: ω = 2πf
• Dimensions of frequency f = [T–1]
• So, angular frequency also has dimensions = [T–1]
A. Angular velocity (ω)
• Even though the name differs, angular velocity and angular frequency have identical units and dimensions:
→ [T–1] (radians per second is dimensionless angle per time)
B. Decay constant (λ)
• From nuclear/radioactive decay law: N = N₀e(–λt)
• To make the exponent dimensionless, λ must have units of 1/time, i.e.,
→ Dimensions: [T⁻¹]
C. Frequency (f)
• Already established:
→ Dimensions: [T–1]
D. All of these
• Since all three quantities have the same dimensions: [T–1],
→ Correct answer is D. -
Question 21 of 180
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsSound waves produced in a closed organ pipe of length 2m is vibrating in form of 3rd harmonics. What is the wavelength of the wave?
Correct
Explanation: B
Incorrect
Explanation: B

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Question 22 of 180
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsIf a thermodynamic system is brought back to its initial point after a cyclic process, then change in which of the following is not zero:
Correct
Explanation: D
In a cyclic process, a thermodynamic system undergoes a series of changes but returns to its initial state at the end of the cycle.
This means:
State functions (like temperature, pressure, volume, internal energy, enthalpy, entropy) all return to their initial values.
Path functions (like work and heat) do not necessarily return to zero because they depend on the path taken during the cycle, not just the start and end states.
A. Temperature
Temperature is a state function, so after a complete cycle, ΔT = 0.
B. Pressure
Pressure is also a state function, hence ΔP = 0 after a full cycle.
C. Enthalpy
Enthalpy is a state function, so ΔH = 0 in a cyclic process.
D. Work
Work is a path function, so ΔW ≠ 0 generally over a cyclic process.
In fact, the net work done by the system is equal to the net heat absorbed during the cycle (from the First Law of Thermodynamics).Incorrect
Explanation: D
In a cyclic process, a thermodynamic system undergoes a series of changes but returns to its initial state at the end of the cycle.
This means:
State functions (like temperature, pressure, volume, internal energy, enthalpy, entropy) all return to their initial values.
Path functions (like work and heat) do not necessarily return to zero because they depend on the path taken during the cycle, not just the start and end states.
A. Temperature
Temperature is a state function, so after a complete cycle, ΔT = 0.
B. Pressure
Pressure is also a state function, hence ΔP = 0 after a full cycle.
C. Enthalpy
Enthalpy is a state function, so ΔH = 0 in a cyclic process.
D. Work
Work is a path function, so ΔW ≠ 0 generally over a cyclic process.
In fact, the net work done by the system is equal to the net heat absorbed during the cycle (from the First Law of Thermodynamics). -
Question 23 of 180
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsWater is flowing in a pipe of diameter 4 cm with a velocity 3 ms–1. The water then enters into a tube of diameter 2 cm. The velocity of water in the other pipe is:
A. 3 ms–1
B. 6 ms–1
C. 12 ms–1
D. 8 ms–1Correct
Explanation: C
Incorrect
Explanation: C

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Question 24 of 180
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsThe equation KE = 1/2 mV2 is obtained as result of:
Correct
Explanation: A
Incorrect
Explanation: A

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Question 25 of 180
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsA body moves in a straight line for some time and then returns to the starting point. IF the total time taken by the body to complete this path is 20s and the total distance travelled is 40m, then which of the statements is incorrect regarding the motion of the body?
A. The displacement of the body is 20 m
B. The displacement of the body is zero
C. The average speed of the body is 2.0 m s-1
D. The average velocity of the body is zeroCorrect
Explanation: A
Incorrect
Explanation: A

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Question 26 of 180
26. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsWhen a person slowly puts down a bucket of mass “m” from height “h”, work done by the person is:
Correct
Explanation: B
On putting the bucket down, net force is directed upwards (otherwise the bucket would fall with acceleration = g) and displacement is downwards. Therefore, the angle between force and displacement is 180 degrees
W = Fdcos180 = mgh–1 = –mgh.Incorrect
Explanation: B
On putting the bucket down, net force is directed upwards (otherwise the bucket would fall with acceleration = g) and displacement is downwards. Therefore, the angle between force and displacement is 180 degrees
W = Fdcos180 = mgh–1 = –mgh. -
Question 27 of 180
27. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsAngle between which of the following pair of quantities always remains the same:
Correct
Explanation: C
Angle between centripetal acceleration and linear velocity always remain 90 degrees.
The direction of angular acceleration and linear acceleration reverses when a body is slowing down.
other options
A. Angular velocity & Angular acceleration
Not always the same angle
If the object is speeding up, angular acceleration is in the same direction as angular velocity (angle = 0°).
If slowing down, angular acceleration is in the opposite direction (angle = 180°).
So, angle varies depending on the motion.
B. Linear velocity & Linear acceleration
Not always same angle
If accelerating in the same direction → angle = 0°
If decelerating → angle = 180°
If turning (e.g., in circular motion) → angle can be 90° or another value
So, angle changes based on motion.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Angle between centripetal acceleration and linear velocity always remain 90 degrees.
The direction of angular acceleration and linear acceleration reverses when a body is slowing down.
other options
A. Angular velocity & Angular acceleration
Not always the same angle
If the object is speeding up, angular acceleration is in the same direction as angular velocity (angle = 0°).
If slowing down, angular acceleration is in the opposite direction (angle = 180°).
So, angle varies depending on the motion.
B. Linear velocity & Linear acceleration
Not always same angle
If accelerating in the same direction → angle = 0°
If decelerating → angle = 180°
If turning (e.g., in circular motion) → angle can be 90° or another value
So, angle changes based on motion. -
Question 28 of 180
28. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsDuring half vibration in SHM, total distance covered is equal to:
Correct
Explanation: B
Complete vibration = 4x amplitude
Half vibration= 2x amplitude.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Complete vibration = 4x amplitude
Half vibration= 2x amplitude. -
Question 29 of 180
29. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsIn a thermodynamics process, pressure of a fixed mass of a gas is changed in such a manner that the gas releases 20 J of heat and 8 J of work is done on the gas. If the initial internal energy of the gas was 30 J. The final internal energy is
Correct
Explanation: A
It is given that
ΔQ = –20 J (Heat Release) ,
ΔW = –8 J (Wordk done on gas)
and Ui = 30 J.
From the first law of thermodynamics, we have
ΔQ = ΔU + ΔW
⇒ ΔU = (ΔQ – ΔW)
⇒ (Uf – Ui) = (ΔQ – ΔW)
⇒ (Uf – 30) = –20 – (–8)
⇒ (Uf – 30) = –20 +8
⇒ Uf = 18 J.Incorrect
Explanation: A
It is given that
ΔQ = –20 J (Heat Release) ,
ΔW = –8 J (Wordk done on gas)
and Ui = 30 J.
From the first law of thermodynamics, we have
ΔQ = ΔU + ΔW
⇒ ΔU = (ΔQ – ΔW)
⇒ (Uf – Ui) = (ΔQ – ΔW)
⇒ (Uf – 30) = –20 – (–8)
⇒ (Uf – 30) = –20 +8
⇒ Uf = 18 J. -
Question 30 of 180
30. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsAccording to Laplace concept for velocity of sound, During Compression temperature of surroundings:
Correct
Explanation: C
Laplace corrected Newton’s formula for the speed of sound in gases by recognizing that sound waves cause rapid compressions and rarefactions, during which:
• No heat exchange occurs (i.e., the process is adiabatic, not isothermal).
• So, temperature changes within the wave (temperature increases during compression and decreases during rarefaction).
• However, the temperature of the surroundings remains unchanged, because the wave passes too quickly for thermal energy to be transferred to the surroundings. So:
Wave (localized region):
• Compression → temperature increases
• Rarefaction → temperature decreases
Surroundings (bulk medium):
• No net heat exchange
• Temperature remains same.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Laplace corrected Newton’s formula for the speed of sound in gases by recognizing that sound waves cause rapid compressions and rarefactions, during which:
• No heat exchange occurs (i.e., the process is adiabatic, not isothermal).
• So, temperature changes within the wave (temperature increases during compression and decreases during rarefaction).
• However, the temperature of the surroundings remains unchanged, because the wave passes too quickly for thermal energy to be transferred to the surroundings. So:
Wave (localized region):
• Compression → temperature increases
• Rarefaction → temperature decreases
Surroundings (bulk medium):
• No net heat exchange
• Temperature remains same. -
Question 31 of 180
31. Question
1 pointsCategory: Physics
Correct
Explanation: D
Incorrect
Explanation: D

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Question 32 of 180
32. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsAn object will continue to move with the same velocity when
Correct
Explanation: B
We know that
Fnet = ma
When Fnet = 0, then a = 0, that is, the velocity is constant.Incorrect
Explanation: B
We know that
Fnet = ma
When Fnet = 0, then a = 0, that is, the velocity is constant. -
Question 33 of 180
33. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsA body of mass 5 kg is dropped from a height of 2 m. If the acceleration due to gravity is 10 ms-2, the kinetic energy of the body just before, it strikes the ground is
Correct
Explanation: A
Just before striking all potential energy is changed to kinetic energy.
PE at start is = mgh = 5 × 2 × 10 = 100 J,
So KE just before striking would be 100J.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Just before striking all potential energy is changed to kinetic energy.
PE at start is = mgh = 5 × 2 × 10 = 100 J,
So KE just before striking would be 100J. -
Question 34 of 180
34. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsA body of mass 1 kg is rotating with a constant angular velocity of 5 rad/s. After 2 seconds, its angular acceleration will be:
A. 5rad/s2
B. 10rad/s2
C. 2.5rad/s2
D. None of theseCorrect
Explanation: D
Since the angular velocity is constant, there is no change in angular velocity with time. Angular acceleration is defined as the rate of change of angular velocity, so in this case, it is zero. Thus, the correct answer is D (None of these) because zero is not among the given options.Incorrect
Explanation: D
Since the angular velocity is constant, there is no change in angular velocity with time. Angular acceleration is defined as the rate of change of angular velocity, so in this case, it is zero. Thus, the correct answer is D (None of these) because zero is not among the given options. -
Question 35 of 180
35. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsStreamline flow is more likely for liquids with
Correct
Explanation: B
Streamline flow (also called laminar flow) is a smooth, orderly flow of fluid in parallel layers, with no disruption between them.
High viscosity: Highly viscous liquids have more chances of streamlined flow because of greater force of attraction between the molecules.
Hints:
Low speed: Helps maintain streamline flow.
Low density: Less inertia, favors laminar flow.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Streamline flow (also called laminar flow) is a smooth, orderly flow of fluid in parallel layers, with no disruption between them.
High viscosity: Highly viscous liquids have more chances of streamlined flow because of greater force of attraction between the molecules.
Hints:
Low speed: Helps maintain streamline flow.
Low density: Less inertia, favors laminar flow. -
Question 36 of 180
36. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsA spacecraft is located at a point in space where the gravitational potential due to Earth is –1 MJ/kg and due to the Moon is –0.3 MJ/kg. What is the net gravitational potential energy of a 100 kg object placed at this point?
Correct
Explanation A
Incorrect
Explanation A

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Question 37 of 180
37. Question
1 pointsCategory: Biology_______ is involved in lipid synthesis/metabolism.
Correct
Explanation: A
‘Smooth ER’ is involved in lipid synthesis and metabolism.
‘Rough ER’ is involved in protein synthesis.
The main job of ‘mitochondria’ is to perform cellular respiration. This means it takes in nutrients from the cell, breaks them down, and turns them into energy.
‘Vacuoles’, on the other hand, are organelles existing mainly to isolate potentially harmful waste materials. They do their task effectively by simply engulfing the waste material.Incorrect
Explanation: A
‘Smooth ER’ is involved in lipid synthesis and metabolism.
‘Rough ER’ is involved in protein synthesis.
The main job of ‘mitochondria’ is to perform cellular respiration. This means it takes in nutrients from the cell, breaks them down, and turns them into energy.
‘Vacuoles’, on the other hand, are organelles existing mainly to isolate potentially harmful waste materials. They do their task effectively by simply engulfing the waste material. -
Question 38 of 180
38. Question
1 pointsCategory: Biology_______ is synthesized by _______ in a process known as transcription.
Correct
Explanation: A
RNA is synthesized through the process of transcription by using DNA as a template.Incorrect
Explanation: A
RNA is synthesized through the process of transcription by using DNA as a template. -
Question 39 of 180
39. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyAn example of competitive inhibition of an enzyme is the inhibition of;
Correct
Explanation: A
Inhibitors, resemble with substrate molecules, join in the active site of the enzyme and inhibit the enzyme activity are called Competitive enzyme inhibitors.
Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase. The binding of succinic dehydrogenase to the substrate, succinate, is completely inhibited. Succinic dehydrogenase catalyzes the oxidation of succinate to fumarate in the Kreb’s cycle was an experiment demonstrated as an example of competitive inhibition.
So, the correct option is, ‘succinic dehydrogenase by malonic acid’Incorrect
Explanation: A
Inhibitors, resemble with substrate molecules, join in the active site of the enzyme and inhibit the enzyme activity are called Competitive enzyme inhibitors.
Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase. The binding of succinic dehydrogenase to the substrate, succinate, is completely inhibited. Succinic dehydrogenase catalyzes the oxidation of succinate to fumarate in the Kreb’s cycle was an experiment demonstrated as an example of competitive inhibition.
So, the correct option is, ‘succinic dehydrogenase by malonic acid’ -
Question 40 of 180
40. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe end product of Glycolysis is:
Correct
Explanation: C
The end products of glycolysis are two molecules of pyruvate, two molecules of ATP, and two molecules of NADH. The pyruvate produced in glycolysis is then transported into the mitochondria for further processing in the citric acid cycle if oxygen is available, or it undergoes fermentation in the absence of oxygen.
Incorrect
Explanation: C
The end products of glycolysis are two molecules of pyruvate, two molecules of ATP, and two molecules of NADH. The pyruvate produced in glycolysis is then transported into the mitochondria for further processing in the citric acid cycle if oxygen is available, or it undergoes fermentation in the absence of oxygen.

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Question 41 of 180
41. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyDiscovered that the agent which caused tobacco mosaic disease was filterable.
Correct
Explanation: D
Dmitry lvanovsky is credited with discovering that the agent responsible for tobacco mosaic disease was filterable. His work laid the foundation for the discovery of viruses.Incorrect
Explanation: D
Dmitry lvanovsky is credited with discovering that the agent responsible for tobacco mosaic disease was filterable. His work laid the foundation for the discovery of viruses. -
Question 42 of 180
42. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyIn human gut carbohydrates are first digested in:
Correct
Explanation: A
In human gut carbohydrates are first digested in oral cavity.Incorrect
Explanation: A
In human gut carbohydrates are first digested in oral cavity. -
Question 43 of 180
43. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyHeart is a four chambered organ with:
Correct
Explanation: D
The human heart has four chambers:
Two upper chambers → Atria (Right atrium and Left atrium)
Thin-walled because they only receive blood and do not pump it with force.
Two lower chambers → Ventricles (Right ventricle and Left ventricle)
Thick-walled, especially the left ventricle, because they pump blood to lungs (right ventricle) and the entire body (left ventricle), which requires more force and pressure.
Incorrect
Explanation: D
The human heart has four chambers:
Two upper chambers → Atria (Right atrium and Left atrium)
Thin-walled because they only receive blood and do not pump it with force.
Two lower chambers → Ventricles (Right ventricle and Left ventricle)
Thick-walled, especially the left ventricle, because they pump blood to lungs (right ventricle) and the entire body (left ventricle), which requires more force and pressure.

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Question 44 of 180
44. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyA foreign substance, often a protein which stimulates the formation of immunoglobulins is called:
Correct
Explanation: A
A foreign substance, often a protein which stimulates the formation of immunoglobulins is called antigen.Incorrect
Explanation: A
A foreign substance, often a protein which stimulates the formation of immunoglobulins is called antigen. -
Question 45 of 180
45. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyGolgi complex is involved in the formation of _____________.
Correct
Explanation: A
lysosomes are formed through the Golgi complex, depending on the type of cell and its function.Incorrect
Explanation: A
lysosomes are formed through the Golgi complex, depending on the type of cell and its function. -
Question 46 of 180
46. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyIt may be upto 80% of the total RNA:
Correct
Explanation: C
Quantitatively rRNA is the major form of RNA in cell.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Quantitatively rRNA is the major form of RNA in cell. -
Question 47 of 180
47. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyUpon increasing the temperature, the shape of enzyme’s active site?
Correct
Explanation: B
Upon increasing the temperature, the shape of an enzyme’s active site may change. Enzymes have an optimal temperature at which they function most effectively. If the temperature becomes too high, the enzyme may undergo denaturation, where it loses its native structure irreversibly. Denaturation leads to a loss of enzyme activity as the active site is no longer able to bind with the substrate.
Incorrect
Explanation: B
Upon increasing the temperature, the shape of an enzyme’s active site may change. Enzymes have an optimal temperature at which they function most effectively. If the temperature becomes too high, the enzyme may undergo denaturation, where it loses its native structure irreversibly. Denaturation leads to a loss of enzyme activity as the active site is no longer able to bind with the substrate.

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Question 48 of 180
48. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyIn the Krebs cycle, substrate-level phosphorylation accompanies the formation of:
Correct
Explanation: C
In the Krebs cycle, also known as the citric acid cycle, the formation of succinate involves a series of chemical reactions, and substrate-level phosphorylation does not take place during the conversion of succinyl-CoA to succinate. The specific step where substrate-level phosphorylation occurs in the Krebs cycle is during the conversion of succinyl-CoA to succinate. In this step, the enzyme succinyl-CoA synthetase is involved, and it catalyzes the transfer of a phosphate group from succinyl-CoA to ADP, producing ATP and succinate. The overall reaction is as follows:
Succinyl-CoA + ADP + Pi (inorganic phosphate) → Succinate + ATP.
Incorrect
Explanation: C
In the Krebs cycle, also known as the citric acid cycle, the formation of succinate involves a series of chemical reactions, and substrate-level phosphorylation does not take place during the conversion of succinyl-CoA to succinate. The specific step where substrate-level phosphorylation occurs in the Krebs cycle is during the conversion of succinyl-CoA to succinate. In this step, the enzyme succinyl-CoA synthetase is involved, and it catalyzes the transfer of a phosphate group from succinyl-CoA to ADP, producing ATP and succinate. The overall reaction is as follows:
Succinyl-CoA + ADP + Pi (inorganic phosphate) → Succinate + ATP.

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Question 49 of 180
49. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyViruses cannot be grown on artificial media because they are:
Correct
Explanation: B
Viruses cannot be grown on artificial media because they are obligate parasites. This means they require a host cell to replicate and cannot reproduce independently outside of a living host organismIncorrect
Explanation: B
Viruses cannot be grown on artificial media because they are obligate parasites. This means they require a host cell to replicate and cannot reproduce independently outside of a living host organism -
Question 50 of 180
50. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyNearly all absorption of the products of digestion takes place in the:
Correct
Explanation: D
Nearly all absorption of the products of digestion takes place in the ileum.Incorrect
Explanation: D
Nearly all absorption of the products of digestion takes place in the ileum. -
Question 51 of 180
51. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyBlood vessels with smaller inner space (narrow bore) and thick walls are called:
Correct
Explanation: A
Incorrect
Explanation: A

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Question 52 of 180
52. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyAn antibody molecule consists of:
Correct
Explanation: D
Incorrect
Explanation: D

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Question 53 of 180
53. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich option precisely describes the function of nucleoli?
Correct
Explanation: C
Nucleolus is the darkly stained area within the nucleus and without any membranous boundary to separate it from the rest of the nuclear material. These are said to be the factory of ribosomes while ribosomes are said to be the factory of protein synthesis.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Nucleolus is the darkly stained area within the nucleus and without any membranous boundary to separate it from the rest of the nuclear material. These are said to be the factory of ribosomes while ribosomes are said to be the factory of protein synthesis. -
Question 54 of 180
54. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyEach nucleotide is made up of:
Correct
Explanation: C
Nucleotide consists of pentose sugar, nitrogenous base and phosphoric acidIncorrect
Explanation: C
Nucleotide consists of pentose sugar, nitrogenous base and phosphoric acid -
Question 55 of 180
55. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe optimum pH for the functioning of the enzyme pepsin is?
Correct
Explanation: A
Pepsin is a protease enzyme, released in the stomach, alongside HCI. Because of HCI, the pH drops to significantly low levels however, this enzyme has adapted to work at maximum efficiency at a pH as low as 2.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Pepsin is a protease enzyme, released in the stomach, alongside HCI. Because of HCI, the pH drops to significantly low levels however, this enzyme has adapted to work at maximum efficiency at a pH as low as 2. -
Question 56 of 180
56. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich part of the cell does glycolysis occur in?
Correct
Explanation: C
Glycolysis, the first stage of cellular respiration, occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell. It is a series of biochemical reactions that break down one molecule of glucose into two molecules of pyruvate. Unlike the subsequent stages of cellular respiration (such as the citric acid cycle and oxidative phosphorylation), glycolysis does not take place in the mitochondria. Instead, it occurs in the cytoplasm, which is the gel-like substance that fills the cell and surrounds the cellular organelles.

Incorrect
Explanation: C
Glycolysis, the first stage of cellular respiration, occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell. It is a series of biochemical reactions that break down one molecule of glucose into two molecules of pyruvate. Unlike the subsequent stages of cellular respiration (such as the citric acid cycle and oxidative phosphorylation), glycolysis does not take place in the mitochondria. Instead, it occurs in the cytoplasm, which is the gel-like substance that fills the cell and surrounds the cellular organelles.

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Question 57 of 180
57. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhat is the function of the viral capsid?
Correct
Explanation: A
The function of the viral capsid is A) To protect the viral genome. The viral capsid is the protein shell that surrounds the viral genetic material, whether it is DNA or RNA. It provides structural integrity and protection to the viral genome from the external environment, including physical and enzymatic degradation. The capsid helps to maintain the stability of the viral genome and ensures its successful delivery to host cells during infection.Incorrect
Explanation: A
The function of the viral capsid is A) To protect the viral genome. The viral capsid is the protein shell that surrounds the viral genetic material, whether it is DNA or RNA. It provides structural integrity and protection to the viral genome from the external environment, including physical and enzymatic degradation. The capsid helps to maintain the stability of the viral genome and ensures its successful delivery to host cells during infection. -
Question 58 of 180
58. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyProtein components of food are digested by the enzymatic secretion of:
Correct
Explanation: C
Protein components of food are digested by the enzymatic secretion of zymogen cells.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Protein components of food are digested by the enzymatic secretion of zymogen cells. -
Question 59 of 180
59. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyOne contraction and one relaxation constitutes a:
Correct
Explanation: C
One contraction and one relaxation constitutes a cardiac cycle.Incorrect
Explanation: C
One contraction and one relaxation constitutes a cardiac cycle. -
Question 60 of 180
60. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyStructure of antibodies resembles to the shape of English letter:
Correct
Explanation: C
Each antibody consists of four polypeptides – two heavy chains and two light chains joined to form a “Y” shaped molecule.

Incorrect
Explanation: C
Each antibody consists of four polypeptides – two heavy chains and two light chains joined to form a “Y” shaped molecule.

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Question 61 of 180
61. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich of the following cells does not have a nucleus?
Correct
Explanation: D
Unlike most other eukaryotic cells, mature red blood cells don’t have nuclei. When they enter the bloodstream for the first time, they eject their nuclei and organelles so, they can carry more hemoglobin, and thus, more oxygen. Each red blood cell has a lifespan of around 100–120 days.Incorrect
Explanation: D
Unlike most other eukaryotic cells, mature red blood cells don’t have nuclei. When they enter the bloodstream for the first time, they eject their nuclei and organelles so, they can carry more hemoglobin, and thus, more oxygen. Each red blood cell has a lifespan of around 100–120 days. -
Question 62 of 180
62. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyPurines include:
Correct
Explanation: C
These are larger nitrogenous bases.
Incorrect
Explanation: C
These are larger nitrogenous bases.

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Question 63 of 180
63. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich of the following is an irreversible inhibitor?
Correct
Explanation: A
Poisons like cyanide are irreversible inhibitors as they destroy the structure of the active sites of the enzymes by forming covalent bonds or physically blocking them. The rest are all reversible inhibitors, which do not damage the active site permanently and their effect can be reversed.
Incorrect
Explanation: A
Poisons like cyanide are irreversible inhibitors as they destroy the structure of the active sites of the enzymes by forming covalent bonds or physically blocking them. The rest are all reversible inhibitors, which do not damage the active site permanently and their effect can be reversed.

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Question 64 of 180
64. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyIf a molecule is reduced it gains:
Correct
Explanation: D
When a molecule undergoes reduction, it gains electrons, hydrogen/protons, and often energy. The process of reduction is fundamental in many biological processes, including cellular respiration, photosynthesis, and various metabolic pathways. Redox reactions play a central role in transferring energy and driving chemical reactions in living organisms. In summary, option d) “all of the above” is the correct answer because reduction involves the gain of electrons and hydrogen/protons, and often results in the acquisition of energy by the molecule undergoing the reduction reaction.Incorrect
Explanation: D
When a molecule undergoes reduction, it gains electrons, hydrogen/protons, and often energy. The process of reduction is fundamental in many biological processes, including cellular respiration, photosynthesis, and various metabolic pathways. Redox reactions play a central role in transferring energy and driving chemical reactions in living organisms. In summary, option d) “all of the above” is the correct answer because reduction involves the gain of electrons and hydrogen/protons, and often results in the acquisition of energy by the molecule undergoing the reduction reaction. -
Question 65 of 180
65. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich of the following is a characteristic of a retrovirus?
Correct
Explanation: D
The characteristic of a retrovirus is D) The virus integrates its genome into the host cell genome. Retroviruses are a unique group of RNA viruses that undergo a reverse transcription process. They contain an RNA genome that is reverse transcribed by the enzyme reverse transcriptase into DNA. This DNA is then integrated into the host cell’s genome, becoming a permanent part of the host cell’s genetic material. Retroviruses, such as HIV, are known for their ability to establish a persistent and lifelong infection in the host due to this integration processIncorrect
Explanation: D
The characteristic of a retrovirus is D) The virus integrates its genome into the host cell genome. Retroviruses are a unique group of RNA viruses that undergo a reverse transcription process. They contain an RNA genome that is reverse transcribed by the enzyme reverse transcriptase into DNA. This DNA is then integrated into the host cell’s genome, becoming a permanent part of the host cell’s genetic material. Retroviruses, such as HIV, are known for their ability to establish a persistent and lifelong infection in the host due to this integration process -
Question 66 of 180
66. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyFormation of feces occurs in:
Correct
Explanation: A

Incorrect
Explanation: A

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Question 67 of 180
67. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe backflow of blood from pulmonary artery is prevented by:
Correct
Explanation: D
The backflow of blood from pulmonary artery is prevented by semilunar valve.Incorrect
Explanation: D
The backflow of blood from pulmonary artery is prevented by semilunar valve. -
Question 68 of 180
68. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyHighly specialized cells of cell-mediated immune system in the blood and lymph are:
Correct
Explanation: B
The cell-mediated immune system consists of T-cells which originate in the bone marrow, but moves to the thymus where their development is completed. T-cells are highly-specialized cells in the blood and lymph. They fight bacteria, viruses, fungi, protozoans, cancer, etc. within host cells and react against foreign matter such as organ transplants.Incorrect
Explanation: B
The cell-mediated immune system consists of T-cells which originate in the bone marrow, but moves to the thymus where their development is completed. T-cells are highly-specialized cells in the blood and lymph. They fight bacteria, viruses, fungi, protozoans, cancer, etc. within host cells and react against foreign matter such as organ transplants. -
Question 69 of 180
69. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich cell organelle is responsible for protein modification?
Correct
Explanation: B
The ‘Golgi apparatus’ is a cellular organelle responsible for the modification and trafficking of proteins to other organelles such as the lysosome, the digestive organelle of the cell.Incorrect
Explanation: B
The ‘Golgi apparatus’ is a cellular organelle responsible for the modification and trafficking of proteins to other organelles such as the lysosome, the digestive organelle of the cell. -
Question 70 of 180
70. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThey built a scale model of DNA:
Correct
Explanation: A
Scale model of DNA was built by James D. Watson and Francis Crick, along with the assistance of Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind Franklin’s X-ray diffraction data, built the first accurate model of the structure of DNA. In 1953, they proposed the double helix model of DNA, which provided a clear understanding of the molecular structure and organization of DNA. Therefore, option A is correct.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Scale model of DNA was built by James D. Watson and Francis Crick, along with the assistance of Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind Franklin’s X-ray diffraction data, built the first accurate model of the structure of DNA. In 1953, they proposed the double helix model of DNA, which provided a clear understanding of the molecular structure and organization of DNA. Therefore, option A is correct. -
Question 71 of 180
71. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhat type of bonds exist between an enzyme and its prosthetic group?
Correct
Explanation: B
Enzymes require cofactors which are involved in the formation of enzyme-substrate complex and formation of product. If cofactor permanently attached by covalent bonds, it is called prosthetic group. If its detachabale, then it is called coenzyme.
Incorrect
Explanation: B
Enzymes require cofactors which are involved in the formation of enzyme-substrate complex and formation of product. If cofactor permanently attached by covalent bonds, it is called prosthetic group. If its detachabale, then it is called coenzyme.

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Question 72 of 180
72. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhat are the end products of the electron transport chain in animals?
Correct
Explanation: D
The end products of the electron transport chain are water and ATP. A number of intermediate compounds of the citric acid cycle can be diverted into the anabolism of other biochemical molecules, such as nonessential amino acids, sugars, and lipids.Incorrect
Explanation: D
The end products of the electron transport chain are water and ATP. A number of intermediate compounds of the citric acid cycle can be diverted into the anabolism of other biochemical molecules, such as nonessential amino acids, sugars, and lipids. -
Question 73 of 180
73. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich factor contributes to the successful propagation of viruses?
Correct
Explanation: B
Viruses rely on the host cell’s machinery for reproduction. This includes using the host’s metabolism to generate energy and synthesize new viral components. Without a host, viruses can’t replicate, so their success hinges on the availability of a suitable host cell. The ability to hijack the host’s resources is key to their survival.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Viruses rely on the host cell’s machinery for reproduction. This includes using the host’s metabolism to generate energy and synthesize new viral components. Without a host, viruses can’t replicate, so their success hinges on the availability of a suitable host cell. The ability to hijack the host’s resources is key to their survival. -
Question 74 of 180
74. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe lymph vessel of villi is called:
Correct
Explanation: C
The lymph vessel of villi is called lacteal.Incorrect
Explanation: C
The lymph vessel of villi is called lacteal. -
Question 75 of 180
75. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe arteries divide into smaller vessels called:
Correct
Explanation: A
The arteries divide into smaller vessels called arteriolesIncorrect
Explanation: A
The arteries divide into smaller vessels called arterioles -
Question 76 of 180
76. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich of the following statements is NOT true for both T cells and B cells?
Correct
Explanation: C
T cells mature in the thymus, while B cells mature in the bone marrow. Therefore, the statement that both T cells and B cells pass through the thymus is incorrect.Incorrect
Explanation: C
T cells mature in the thymus, while B cells mature in the bone marrow. Therefore, the statement that both T cells and B cells pass through the thymus is incorrect. -
Question 77 of 180
77. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe place of centromere where spindle fibres get attached is?
Correct
Explanation: A
The spindle fibre attaches to the centromere at a proteinaceous structure called the kinetochore.Incorrect
Explanation: A
The spindle fibre attaches to the centromere at a proteinaceous structure called the kinetochore. -
Question 78 of 180
78. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyAll are biological importance of water, EXCEPT:
Correct
Explanation: D
Water has a unique property, as it expands when temperature falls below 4°C (39°F). Water is most heavy at 4°C, therefore ice (solid water) is less dense than liquid water and this is the reason that ice floats in liquid water. Water body freezes on the surface at low temperature. Water has a high surface tension. In living cells this feature of surface tension allows a thin film of water to cover membranes and to keep them moist.Incorrect
Explanation: D
Water has a unique property, as it expands when temperature falls below 4°C (39°F). Water is most heavy at 4°C, therefore ice (solid water) is less dense than liquid water and this is the reason that ice floats in liquid water. Water body freezes on the surface at low temperature. Water has a high surface tension. In living cells this feature of surface tension allows a thin film of water to cover membranes and to keep them moist. -
Question 79 of 180
79. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyIf the pH of a solution changes slightly, there is a __________.
Correct
Explanation: D
All of these options are correct: If the pH of a solution changes slightly, it can result in a change in the ionization of the active site of an enzyme, the ionization of the substrate, and the retardation or blockage of enzyme activity.Incorrect
Explanation: D
All of these options are correct: If the pH of a solution changes slightly, it can result in a change in the ionization of the active site of an enzyme, the ionization of the substrate, and the retardation or blockage of enzyme activity. -
Question 80 of 180
80. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyFrom one pyruvate passing through the Krebs cycle, how many NADH are formed?
Correct
Explanation: C
From one pyruvate, 3 NADH are produced by oxidative decarboxylation during Krebs cycle.
Incorrect
Explanation: C
From one pyruvate, 3 NADH are produced by oxidative decarboxylation during Krebs cycle.

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Question 81 of 180
81. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich of the following statements best describes acellular life?
Correct
Explanation: C
Acellular life refers to life forms that lack cellular structures, such as organelles, membranes, or cytoplasm. Examples include viruses, viroids, and prions. Unlike cellular organisms, these entities rely on host cells for replication and metabolic processes. Viruses, for instance, contain genetic material but can’t replicate without a host. They are not truly “alive” outside of a host, which sets them apart from cellular lifeIncorrect
Explanation: C
Acellular life refers to life forms that lack cellular structures, such as organelles, membranes, or cytoplasm. Examples include viruses, viroids, and prions. Unlike cellular organisms, these entities rely on host cells for replication and metabolic processes. Viruses, for instance, contain genetic material but can’t replicate without a host. They are not truly “alive” outside of a host, which sets them apart from cellular life -
Question 82 of 180
82. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyIn which part of the small intestine is digestion finalized?
Correct
Explanation: B
The jejunum is where most of the nutrient digestion and breakdown is finalized, preparing them for absorption.Incorrect
Explanation: B
The jejunum is where most of the nutrient digestion and breakdown is finalized, preparing them for absorption. -
Question 83 of 180
83. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhat causes the “lub” (first) sound of the heartbeat?
Correct
Explanation: D
The heartbeat sound is made up of two distinct components:
• The “lub” (first sound) is caused by the closure of the atrioventricular (AV) valves (tricuspid and bicuspid/mitral) during ventricular contraction (systole).
• The “dub” (second sound) is caused by the closure of the semilunar valves (aortic and pulmonary) at the beginning of ventricular relaxation (diastole).Incorrect
Explanation: D
The heartbeat sound is made up of two distinct components:
• The “lub” (first sound) is caused by the closure of the atrioventricular (AV) valves (tricuspid and bicuspid/mitral) during ventricular contraction (systole).
• The “dub” (second sound) is caused by the closure of the semilunar valves (aortic and pulmonary) at the beginning of ventricular relaxation (diastole). -
Question 84 of 180
84. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyHumoral immunity is due to:
Correct
Explanation: D
Humoral immunity is mediated by B-lymphocytes (B cells), which produce antibodies to fight infections. T-lymphocytes, on the other hand, are involved in cell-mediated immunity. Options B and C are not valid types of lymphocytes.
Additional Information: What is Humoral Immunity?
“Humoral” refers to the bodily fluids or “humors.” In the context of immunology, humoral immunity involves the production of antibodies by B cells that are secreted into bodily fluids (such as blood and lymph) to neutralize pathogens. This aspect of the immune system is crucial for defending against infections and is a key component of our overall immune response.Incorrect
Explanation: D
Humoral immunity is mediated by B-lymphocytes (B cells), which produce antibodies to fight infections. T-lymphocytes, on the other hand, are involved in cell-mediated immunity. Options B and C are not valid types of lymphocytes.
Additional Information: What is Humoral Immunity?
“Humoral” refers to the bodily fluids or “humors.” In the context of immunology, humoral immunity involves the production of antibodies by B cells that are secreted into bodily fluids (such as blood and lymph) to neutralize pathogens. This aspect of the immune system is crucial for defending against infections and is a key component of our overall immune response. -
Question 85 of 180
85. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich of the following would not be observed in a bacterial cell?
Correct
Explanation: B
Bacteria is a prokaryote and lacks membrane-bound organelles, so they do not contain Golgi apparatus. All other mentioned structures are found in bacteriaIncorrect
Explanation: B
Bacteria is a prokaryote and lacks membrane-bound organelles, so they do not contain Golgi apparatus. All other mentioned structures are found in bacteria -
Question 86 of 180
86. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyIt is a process in which large organic molecules are synthesized and water molecule is removed:
Correct
Explanation: B
Therefore, the correct statement for the process in which large organic molecules are synthesized and a water molecule is removed is b) Condensation.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Therefore, the correct statement for the process in which large organic molecules are synthesized and a water molecule is removed is b) Condensation. -
Question 87 of 180
87. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyChange in temperature from 30˚C to 40˚C in human body will cause:
Correct
Explanation: C
The optimum temperature for the enzymes in the human body is 37˚C. When the temperature is increased from 30˚C, the rate of reaction is also increased. At 37˚C, the rate of reaction is maximum. If the temperature further increases, the rate of reaction decreases due to the denaturation of enzymes at high temperatures.Incorrect
Explanation: C
The optimum temperature for the enzymes in the human body is 37˚C. When the temperature is increased from 30˚C, the rate of reaction is also increased. At 37˚C, the rate of reaction is maximum. If the temperature further increases, the rate of reaction decreases due to the denaturation of enzymes at high temperatures. -
Question 88 of 180
88. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe link between Kreb’s cycle and glycolysis in carbohydrate metabolism is:
Correct
Explanation: D
Acetyl CoA is the link between glycolysis and Kreb’s cycle. Acetyl CoA is formed after decarboxylation of pyruvate. This acetyl CoA then enters Kreb’s cycle.
Incorrect
Explanation: D
Acetyl CoA is the link between glycolysis and Kreb’s cycle. Acetyl CoA is formed after decarboxylation of pyruvate. This acetyl CoA then enters Kreb’s cycle.

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Question 89 of 180
89. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich of the following is a pair of viral diseases?
Correct
Explanation: A
The common cold is a viral disease. It is caused by Rhinoviruses. It causes fever and pain all over the body and affects the nose, throat, and air passages. AIDS (Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome) is a disorder of the cell-mediated immune system of the body. It is caused by HIV (Human immunodeficiency virus). HIV is a retrovirus that attacks helper T cells.Incorrect
Explanation: A
The common cold is a viral disease. It is caused by Rhinoviruses. It causes fever and pain all over the body and affects the nose, throat, and air passages. AIDS (Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome) is a disorder of the cell-mediated immune system of the body. It is caused by HIV (Human immunodeficiency virus). HIV is a retrovirus that attacks helper T cells. -
Question 90 of 180
90. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich cells of the pancreas secrete glucagon?
Correct
Explanation: A
Alpha cells in the pancreas produce and secrete glucagon, a hormone that raises blood glucose levels. Beta cells, on the other hand, secrete insulin.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Alpha cells in the pancreas produce and secrete glucagon, a hormone that raises blood glucose levels. Beta cells, on the other hand, secrete insulin. -
Question 91 of 180
91. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich of the following is not the function of endoplasmic reticulum?
Correct
Explanation: C
ER is not involved in synthesis of conjugated molecules. Golgi apparatus does this.Incorrect
Explanation: C
ER is not involved in synthesis of conjugated molecules. Golgi apparatus does this. -
Question 92 of 180
92. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologySelect the molecular formula of lactose.
A. C11H22O11
B. C12H22O11
C. C12H24O12
D. C11H24O12Correct
Explanation: B
Option B is correct, as it is the correct molecular formula of lactose.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Option B is correct, as it is the correct molecular formula of lactose. -
Question 93 of 180
93. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyAll of the following are true for an enzyme except:
Correct
Explanation: B
Enzymes are the biological catalysts, which speed up rate of chemical reaction by lowering energy of activation.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Enzymes are the biological catalysts, which speed up rate of chemical reaction by lowering energy of activation. -
Question 94 of 180
94. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyHow many ATPs does one NADH ideally give?
Correct
Explanation: D
In the electron transport chain, electron carriers take electrons from NADH and FADH2 and pass them through a chain of complexes. The ETC takes the energy from these electrons and pumps protons (H+) into the intermembrane space. This creates a gradient of a high proton concentration in the intermembrane space and a low concentration in the matrix of mitochondria. ATP synthase uses this energy to make ATP. One NADH makes 3 ATPs and one FADH2 makes 2 ATPs.
Incorrect
Explanation: D
In the electron transport chain, electron carriers take electrons from NADH and FADH2 and pass them through a chain of complexes. The ETC takes the energy from these electrons and pumps protons (H+) into the intermembrane space. This creates a gradient of a high proton concentration in the intermembrane space and a low concentration in the matrix of mitochondria. ATP synthase uses this energy to make ATP. One NADH makes 3 ATPs and one FADH2 makes 2 ATPs.

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Question 95 of 180
95. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyIt is false for viruses:
Correct
Explanation: A
Viruses do not contain both DNA and RNA simultaneously. They can have either DNA or RNA as their genetic material, but not both at the same time. A virus is classified as either a DNA virus (contains DNA) or an RNA virus (contains RNA). For example, the influenza virus is an RNA virus, while the herpes simplex virus is a DNA virus. Some viruses have single-stranded genetic material (either DNA or RNA), while others have double-stranded genetic material. The presence of either DNA or RNA is one of the defining characteristics used to classify viruses into different groups.

Incorrect
Explanation: A
Viruses do not contain both DNA and RNA simultaneously. They can have either DNA or RNA as their genetic material, but not both at the same time. A virus is classified as either a DNA virus (contains DNA) or an RNA virus (contains RNA). For example, the influenza virus is an RNA virus, while the herpes simplex virus is a DNA virus. Some viruses have single-stranded genetic material (either DNA or RNA), while others have double-stranded genetic material. The presence of either DNA or RNA is one of the defining characteristics used to classify viruses into different groups.

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Question 96 of 180
96. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhat do parietal cells in the stomach secrete?
Correct
Explanation: D
Parietal cells secrete HCl, which helps to activate digestive enzymes and maintain an acidic environment in the stomach, and intrinsic factor, a protein necessary for vitamin B12 absorption. Pepsinogen is secreted by chief cells.Incorrect
Explanation: D
Parietal cells secrete HCl, which helps to activate digestive enzymes and maintain an acidic environment in the stomach, and intrinsic factor, a protein necessary for vitamin B12 absorption. Pepsinogen is secreted by chief cells. -
Question 97 of 180
97. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich of the following is not a character of mitochondria?
A. It contains F1 particles
B. It is double membranous
C. is a self-replicating organelle
D. Number of mitochondria is constantCorrect
Explanation: D
The number of mitochondria varies according to the activity of cells.Incorrect
Explanation: D
The number of mitochondria varies according to the activity of cells. -
Question 98 of 180
98. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyA fat molecule has three fatty acids. A phospholipid molecule has how many fatty acids?
Correct
Explanation: C
Phospholipid molecule has 2 fatty acids.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Phospholipid molecule has 2 fatty acids. -
Question 99 of 180
99. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhat is produced in the muscle cells during extreme physical activity?
Correct
Explanation: C
Muscle cells perform lactic acid fermentation (a form of anaerobic respiration) during vigorous exercise.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Muscle cells perform lactic acid fermentation (a form of anaerobic respiration) during vigorous exercise. -
Question 100 of 180
100. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe phenomenon of transcription in HIV life cycle occurs in:
Correct
Explanation: A
In HIV infected helper T-cells, the process of transcription occurs in nucleus while the process of reverse transcription occurs in cytoplasm.
The HIV virus undergoes a number of processes in the nucleus, cytoplasm, and viral capsid during its replication cycle.
In the nucleus:
Reverse transcription: The viral RNA is reverse transcribed into DNA by the reverse transcriptase enzyme.
Integration: The DNA is integrated into the DNA of the host cell by the integrase enzyme.
Transcription: The integrated DNA is transcribed into RNA by the host cell’s DNA polymerase.
In the cytoplasm:
Translation: The RNA is translated into proteins by the host cell’s ribosomes.
Protease cleavage: The proteins are cleaved by the protease enzyme into their active forms.
Assembly: The viral proteins and RNA assemble into new virions.
In the viral capsid:
Maturation: The virions are matured by the removal of the proteins that are not needed for infection.
Budding: The virions bud from the host cell membrane and are released into the extracellular environment.
Incorrect
Explanation: A
In HIV infected helper T-cells, the process of transcription occurs in nucleus while the process of reverse transcription occurs in cytoplasm.
The HIV virus undergoes a number of processes in the nucleus, cytoplasm, and viral capsid during its replication cycle.
In the nucleus:
Reverse transcription: The viral RNA is reverse transcribed into DNA by the reverse transcriptase enzyme.
Integration: The DNA is integrated into the DNA of the host cell by the integrase enzyme.
Transcription: The integrated DNA is transcribed into RNA by the host cell’s DNA polymerase.
In the cytoplasm:
Translation: The RNA is translated into proteins by the host cell’s ribosomes.
Protease cleavage: The proteins are cleaved by the protease enzyme into their active forms.
Assembly: The viral proteins and RNA assemble into new virions.
In the viral capsid:
Maturation: The virions are matured by the removal of the proteins that are not needed for infection.
Budding: The virions bud from the host cell membrane and are released into the extracellular environment.

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Question 101 of 180
101. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich pigment is formed in the liver from the breakdown of hemoglobin?
Correct
Explanation: B
Hemoglobin breakdown produces bilirubin, which is processed by the liver and excreted in bile.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Hemoglobin breakdown produces bilirubin, which is processed by the liver and excreted in bile. -
Question 102 of 180
102. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyCytoplasmic functionality is BEST described as:
Correct
Explanation: C
The cytoplasm isn’t just empty space-it’s a bustling, dynamic region of the cell where numerous processes like metabolic pathways, protein synthesis, and storage of essential molecules occur. Think of the cytoplasm as a multitasking workspace, where enzymes, substrates, and various chemicals are always on the move, creating energy and building essential components. It’s busy, active, and absolutely vital for cell survivalIncorrect
Explanation: C
The cytoplasm isn’t just empty space-it’s a bustling, dynamic region of the cell where numerous processes like metabolic pathways, protein synthesis, and storage of essential molecules occur. Think of the cytoplasm as a multitasking workspace, where enzymes, substrates, and various chemicals are always on the move, creating energy and building essential components. It’s busy, active, and absolutely vital for cell survival -
Question 103 of 180
103. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe peptide linkage is:
A. CONH2
B. –COONH2
C. –CONH
D. –CH–NHCorrect
Explanation: C
The linkage between the hydroxyl group of carboxyl group of one amino acid and the hydrogen of amino group of another amino acid release H20 and C – N link, to form a bond called peptide bond.Incorrect
Explanation: C
The linkage between the hydroxyl group of carboxyl group of one amino acid and the hydrogen of amino group of another amino acid release H20 and C – N link, to form a bond called peptide bond. -
Question 104 of 180
104. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich of the following processes can take place in the presence and absence of oxygen?
Correct
Explanation: A
Glycolysis is the cellular process that can take place both in the presence and absence of oxygen. Glycolysis is the initial stage of cellular respiration, and it occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell. This process involves the breakdown of one molecule of glucose into two molecules of pyruvate, along with the production of a small amount of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) and reduced electron carriers (such as NADH).

Incorrect
Explanation: A
Glycolysis is the cellular process that can take place both in the presence and absence of oxygen. Glycolysis is the initial stage of cellular respiration, and it occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell. This process involves the breakdown of one molecule of glucose into two molecules of pyruvate, along with the production of a small amount of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) and reduced electron carriers (such as NADH).

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Question 105 of 180
105. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhat is the standard treatment approach for managing AIDS?
Correct
Explanation: B
HAART, also known as combination antiretroviral therapy (cART), is the standard treatment for HIV/AIDS, involving a combination of antiretroviral medications to suppress viral replication.Incorrect
Explanation: B
HAART, also known as combination antiretroviral therapy (cART), is the standard treatment for HIV/AIDS, involving a combination of antiretroviral medications to suppress viral replication. -
Question 106 of 180
106. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe amount of DNA in _______ is one half to that of ________.
Correct
Explanation: C
Germ cells (sperms and ova) are meiotic products, thus contain haploid number of chromosomes, whereas rest of the body cells are mitotic products.
Gametocytes are precursor cells that undergo meiosis to form gametes (sperms or ova). Although they are still diploid, they are part of the germ cell lineage.
A primary spermatocyte or primary oocyte is a classic example of a gametocyte.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Germ cells (sperms and ova) are meiotic products, thus contain haploid number of chromosomes, whereas rest of the body cells are mitotic products.
Gametocytes are precursor cells that undergo meiosis to form gametes (sperms or ova). Although they are still diploid, they are part of the germ cell lineage.
A primary spermatocyte or primary oocyte is a classic example of a gametocyte. -
Question 107 of 180
107. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich structure of protein gives information about the folding of a protein?
Correct
Explanation: B
The tertiary structure is the overall folding of the polypeptide chain, and it is determined by the interactions between the side chains of the amino acids. These interactions include ionic and disulfide bonds. The tertiary structure gives information about the folding of the protein. Whereas, the primary structure is the sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide chain. The secondary structure is the local folding patterns of the polypeptide chain, such as alpha helices and beta sheets. Lastly, the quaternary structure of a protein is the arrangement of multiple polypeptide chains in a single protein molecule. This is carried about by the hydrophobic interactions between the polypeptide chains.Incorrect
Explanation: B
The tertiary structure is the overall folding of the polypeptide chain, and it is determined by the interactions between the side chains of the amino acids. These interactions include ionic and disulfide bonds. The tertiary structure gives information about the folding of the protein. Whereas, the primary structure is the sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide chain. The secondary structure is the local folding patterns of the polypeptide chain, such as alpha helices and beta sheets. Lastly, the quaternary structure of a protein is the arrangement of multiple polypeptide chains in a single protein molecule. This is carried about by the hydrophobic interactions between the polypeptide chains. -
Question 108 of 180
108. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyHow many carbons does citrate have in the Krebs’ cycle?
Correct
Explanation: B
Citrate, the first compound formed in the Krebs cycle (also known as the citric acid cycle or tricarboxylic acid cycle), has six carbon atoms. Its chemical formula is often written as C6H8O7, indicating six carbon atoms, eight hydrogen atoms, and seven oxygen atoms. The Krebs cycle is a series of chemical reactions that takes place in the mitochondria of cells, and citrate is a key intermediate in this cycle.

Incorrect
Explanation: B
Citrate, the first compound formed in the Krebs cycle (also known as the citric acid cycle or tricarboxylic acid cycle), has six carbon atoms. Its chemical formula is often written as C6H8O7, indicating six carbon atoms, eight hydrogen atoms, and seven oxygen atoms. The Krebs cycle is a series of chemical reactions that takes place in the mitochondria of cells, and citrate is a key intermediate in this cycle.

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Question 109 of 180
109. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhat makes a virus infectious?
Correct
Explanation: B
The genetic material (nucleic acid) of a virus is what makes it infectious, as it allows the virus to replicate within a host cell.Incorrect
Explanation: B
The genetic material (nucleic acid) of a virus is what makes it infectious, as it allows the virus to replicate within a host cell. -
Question 110 of 180
110. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyIn which type of cell were mitochondria first observed?
Correct
Explanation: B
Mitochondria were first observed in muscle cells due to their high energy requirements and abundance of these organelles.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Mitochondria were first observed in muscle cells due to their high energy requirements and abundance of these organelles. -
Question 111 of 180
111. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyGlycerol is component of:
Correct
Explanation: D
Option D is correct as Acylglycerols and Phospholipids, both are made of lipid molecule, hence they consist of glycerolIncorrect
Explanation: D
Option D is correct as Acylglycerols and Phospholipids, both are made of lipid molecule, hence they consist of glycerol -
Question 112 of 180
112. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhat protein makes up the core of the HIV virus?
Correct
Explanation: C
The p24 protein is a core protein of the HIV virus, that surrounds the genetic material.Incorrect
Explanation: C
The p24 protein is a core protein of the HIV virus, that surrounds the genetic material. -
Question 113 of 180
113. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhat is one key difference between plant cells and animal cells?
Correct
Explanation: C
Plant cells have a rigid cell wall composed of cellulose, whereas animal cells do not have a cell wall.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Plant cells have a rigid cell wall composed of cellulose, whereas animal cells do not have a cell wall. -
Question 114 of 180
114. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyOur body cannot manufacture proteins out of which type of amino acids?
Correct
Explanation: D
The human body uses L-amino acids to build proteins, and D-amino acids are not typically incorporated into proteins.Incorrect
Explanation: D
The human body uses L-amino acids to build proteins, and D-amino acids are not typically incorporated into proteins. -
Question 115 of 180
115. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhat is chromatin?
Correct
Explanation: B
Chromatin is made of DNA and proteins (mainly histones), found in the nucleus before chromosomes condense.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Chromatin is made of DNA and proteins (mainly histones), found in the nucleus before chromosomes condense. -
Question 116 of 180
116. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich lipid does not contain fatty acids?
Correct
Explanation: D
Steroids and terpenoids are types of lipids that do not contain fatty acids. Steroids have a characteristic ring structure, while terpenoids are composed of isoprene units. Waxes, on the other hand, are esters of fatty acids with long-chain alcoholsIncorrect
Explanation: D
Steroids and terpenoids are types of lipids that do not contain fatty acids. Steroids have a characteristic ring structure, while terpenoids are composed of isoprene units. Waxes, on the other hand, are esters of fatty acids with long-chain alcohols -
Question 117 of 180
117. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe distance between two successive base pairs of DNA is:
Correct
Explanation: B
Each base pair is separated by 0.34 nanometers along the helix axis.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Each base pair is separated by 0.34 nanometers along the helix axis. -
Question 118 of 180
118. Question
1 pointsCategory: Chemistry32g of CH4 & 16g of SO2 are taken at STP. Total volume occupied by both gases is:
A. 22.4dm3
B. 28dm3
C. 50.4dm3
D. 11.2dm3Correct
Explanation: C
Moles of CH4 = 32g/16g = 2
Vol. of CH4 = 2 ×22.4dm3 = 44.8dm3.
Moles of SO2 = 16g / 64g = 0.25
Volume of SO2 = 0.25 × 22.4dm3= 5.6dm3
Total vol = 44.8dm3 + 5.6dm3
= 50.4dm3.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Moles of CH4 = 32g/16g = 2
Vol. of CH4 = 2 ×22.4dm3 = 44.8dm3.
Moles of SO2 = 16g / 64g = 0.25
Volume of SO2 = 0.25 × 22.4dm3= 5.6dm3
Total vol = 44.8dm3 + 5.6dm3
= 50.4dm3. -
Question 119 of 180
119. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistrySolid NaCl is a bad conductor of electricity because:
Correct
Explanation: C
Conduction of electricity occurs when there is a free-moving charge (electrons or ions), so the answer is C.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Conduction of electricity occurs when there is a free-moving charge (electrons or ions), so the answer is C. -
Question 120 of 180
120. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryA molecule is formed with two central and 4 surrounding atoms. Central atoms bind to each other through single bond and all surrounding atoms bind to central atoms through double bonds. Total sigma & pi bonds in the molecule are:
Correct
Explanation: C
There are 2 central atoms bonded to each other with a single bond → this is 1 sigma bond.
• Each central atom is bonded to 2 surrounding atoms (total 4 surrounding atoms).
• Each of these surrounding atoms is double bonded to the central atom → each double bond = 1 sigma + 1 pi bond.
Let’s count:
Bonds between central atoms:
• 1 single bond → 1 sigma bond
Bonds from central atoms to surrounding atoms:
• 4 double bonds → Each contributes 1 sigma + 1 pi
Total = 4 sigma + 4 pi
Total bonds:
• Sigma bonds = 1 (central–central) + 4 (one per double bond) = 5 sigma
• Pi bonds = 1 per double bond × 4 = 4 pi.Incorrect
Explanation: C
There are 2 central atoms bonded to each other with a single bond → this is 1 sigma bond.
• Each central atom is bonded to 2 surrounding atoms (total 4 surrounding atoms).
• Each of these surrounding atoms is double bonded to the central atom → each double bond = 1 sigma + 1 pi bond.
Let’s count:
Bonds between central atoms:
• 1 single bond → 1 sigma bond
Bonds from central atoms to surrounding atoms:
• 4 double bonds → Each contributes 1 sigma + 1 pi
Total = 4 sigma + 4 pi
Total bonds:
• Sigma bonds = 1 (central–central) + 4 (one per double bond) = 5 sigma
• Pi bonds = 1 per double bond × 4 = 4 pi. -
Question 121 of 180
121. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryTwo electrons cannot reside in a single orbital when a set of degenerate orbitals is available according to:
Correct
Explanation: B
This is the Statement of Hund’s rule only according to kpk textbooksIncorrect
Explanation: B
This is the Statement of Hund’s rule only according to kpk textbooks -
Question 122 of 180
122. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryIonic product is greater than Ksp for a salt, to make the solution saturated:
Correct
Explanation: B
Correct Option: B. Precipitation occurs
Given: Ionic Product > Ksp:
The solution contains more ions than it can hold at equilibrium.
This means the solution is supersaturated.
To restore equilibrium, the excess ions come out of solution as precipitate.
A. More salt dissolves:
This happens only when
Ionic Product < Ksp.
If the solution is unsaturated, more salt can dissolve to increase ion concentration.
C. Solution is saturated:
A saturated solution is when
Ionic Product = Ksp, meaning the solution holds the maximum possible ions in equilibrium.
D. No precipitation occurs:
This would be true if
Ionic Product ≤ Ksp.
If Ionic Product < Ksp → No precipitation; more salt can dissolve.
If Ionic Product = Ksp → No net change; system is at equilibrium.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Correct Option: B. Precipitation occurs
Given: Ionic Product > Ksp:
The solution contains more ions than it can hold at equilibrium.
This means the solution is supersaturated.
To restore equilibrium, the excess ions come out of solution as precipitate.
A. More salt dissolves:
This happens only when
Ionic Product < Ksp.
If the solution is unsaturated, more salt can dissolve to increase ion concentration.
C. Solution is saturated:
A saturated solution is when
Ionic Product = Ksp, meaning the solution holds the maximum possible ions in equilibrium.
D. No precipitation occurs:
This would be true if
Ionic Product ≤ Ksp.
If Ionic Product < Ksp → No precipitation; more salt can dissolve.
If Ionic Product = Ksp → No net change; system is at equilibrium. -
Question 123 of 180
123. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryA good reducing agent has a characteristic that:
Correct
Explanation: D
A reducing agent is a substance that loses electrons and gets oxidized itself, while reducing another substance.
To be a good reducing agent, a substance should:
Easily lose electrons (i.e., undergo oxidation readily)
Therefore, it should have a high oxidation potentialIncorrect
Explanation: D
A reducing agent is a substance that loses electrons and gets oxidized itself, while reducing another substance.
To be a good reducing agent, a substance should:
Easily lose electrons (i.e., undergo oxidation readily)
Therefore, it should have a high oxidation potential -
Question 124 of 180
124. Question
1 pointsCategory: Chemistry0.2 moles of which substance have a mass of 8g?
A. O3
B. SO3
C. O2
D. CaCorrect
Explanation: D
1 mole of Ca = 40g
0.2 moles of Ca = 1/5 × 40g = 8g.Incorrect
Explanation: D
1 mole of Ca = 40g
0.2 moles of Ca = 1/5 × 40g = 8g. -
Question 125 of 180
125. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryThe term “pseudo solids” is commonly used as a reference term for:
Correct
Explanation: B
Amorphous solids are referred to as “pseudo solids “or “supercooled liquids” because:
• Lack of long-range order: Unlike crystalline solids, amorphous solids do not have a regular, repeating arrangement of particles throughout the structure.
• No sharp melting point: They gradually soften over a range of temperatures, similar to liquids.
• Examples: Glass, plastic, pitch, and gels.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Amorphous solids are referred to as “pseudo solids “or “supercooled liquids” because:
• Lack of long-range order: Unlike crystalline solids, amorphous solids do not have a regular, repeating arrangement of particles throughout the structure.
• No sharp melting point: They gradually soften over a range of temperatures, similar to liquids.
• Examples: Glass, plastic, pitch, and gels. -
Question 126 of 180
126. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryWhich of the following molecules has the highest dipole moment?
A. CH4
B. CO2
C. NH3
D. BCl3Correct
Explanation C
To determine which molecule has the highest dipole moment, we must consider both:
Electronegativity differences (how polar individual bonds are), and
Molecular geometry (whether the dipoles cancel or reinforce each other).
All other molecules are symmetrical (even if they have polar bonds), causing their dipoles to cancel (Dipole moment = 0D).
NH3 is asymmetrical and has strong polar bonds, leading to a net dipole moment (Dipole moment > 0 D).
Thus, NH3 has the highest dipole moment among the given molecules.
Incorrect
Explanation C
To determine which molecule has the highest dipole moment, we must consider both:
Electronegativity differences (how polar individual bonds are), and
Molecular geometry (whether the dipoles cancel or reinforce each other).
All other molecules are symmetrical (even if they have polar bonds), causing their dipoles to cancel (Dipole moment = 0D).
NH3 is asymmetrical and has strong polar bonds, leading to a net dipole moment (Dipole moment > 0 D).
Thus, NH3 has the highest dipole moment among the given molecules.

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Question 127 of 180
127. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryIn positive rays, maximum possible e/m value achieved is:
A. 1.6 × 10–19 C /kg
B. 1.7588 ×1011 C/kg
C. 9.5 × 107 C/kg
D. 7.7 × 108 C/kgCorrect
Explanation: C
Incorrect
Explanation: C

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Question 128 of 180
128. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryKc of a reversible reaction A → 2B is 15. At a certain time, concentration of reactants was found to be 1 & that of products was 4. True statement at this stage of reaction:
Correct
Explanation: B
Qc = [B]2/[A]
Qc = 42/1 = 16
So Qc > Kc, it means there are more products than reactants so reaction will move reverse to achieve equilibrium.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Qc = [B]2/[A]
Qc = 42/1 = 16
So Qc > Kc, it means there are more products than reactants so reaction will move reverse to achieve equilibrium. -
Question 129 of 180
129. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryThe oxidation number of all the elements in the free state is:
Correct
Explanation: C
The oxidation number (also called oxidation state) of an element in its free or elemental state is always zero (0).
This is because, in the free state, atoms are not combined with atoms of other elements — they are neutral, so they neither gain nor lose electrons.Incorrect
Explanation: C
The oxidation number (also called oxidation state) of an element in its free or elemental state is always zero (0).
This is because, in the free state, atoms are not combined with atoms of other elements — they are neutral, so they neither gain nor lose electrons. -
Question 130 of 180
130. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryA sample of carbon–12 has a mass of 3.0g. Which expression gives the number of atoms in the sample?
A. 0.0030 NA
B. 0.25 NA
C. 3.0 NA
D. 4.0 NACorrect
Explanation: B
No. of moles = 3g / 12g = 0.25
No. of atoms = moles × Na = 0.25 × Na.Incorrect
Explanation: B
No. of moles = 3g / 12g = 0.25
No. of atoms = moles × Na = 0.25 × Na. -
Question 131 of 180
131. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryTriclinic is the most unsymmetric unit cell, such unit cell is possessed by crystals of:
A. PbCrO4
B. CaCO3
C. K2Cr2O7
D. TiO2Correct
Explanation: C
This information is taken from textbook table. The triclinic crystal system is the least symmetric among the seven crystal systems. In triclinic structures:
• All three sides are unequal.
• All three angles are unequal and none is 90°.
• There is no axis of symmetry.
From the textbook crystallography table, the substances and their crystal systems are typically listed as:
Incorrect
Explanation: C
This information is taken from textbook table. The triclinic crystal system is the least symmetric among the seven crystal systems. In triclinic structures:
• All three sides are unequal.
• All three angles are unequal and none is 90°.
• There is no axis of symmetry.
From the textbook crystallography table, the substances and their crystal systems are typically listed as:

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Question 132 of 180
132. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryMolecular geometry of SO3 is similar to:
A. NH3
B. PF3
C. XeO3
D. BF3Correct
Explanation: D
The molecular geometry of SO3 (sulphur trioxide) is:
• Trigonal planar
• Central atom (S) forms three double bonds with three oxygen atoms
• No lone pairs on sulphur
• Bond angles = 120°
• Molecule is flat (planar)
Let’s compare it with the options:
A. NH3 (Ammonia)
• Geometry: Trigonal pyramidal
• Has 1 lone pair on nitrogen
• Bond angle ≈ 107°
• Not planar
B. PF₃ (Phosphorus trifluoride)
• Geometry: Trigonal pyramidal
• Has a lone pair on phosphorus
• Bond angle < 109.5°
• Not planar
C. XeO3 (Xenon trioxide)
• Geometry: Trigonal pyramidal
• Has a lone pair on xenon
Not planar
D. BF3 (Boron trifluoride)
• Geometry: Trigonal planar
• No lone pairs on boron
• Bond angles = 120°
• Planar molecule — just like SO3.Incorrect
Explanation: D
The molecular geometry of SO3 (sulphur trioxide) is:
• Trigonal planar
• Central atom (S) forms three double bonds with three oxygen atoms
• No lone pairs on sulphur
• Bond angles = 120°
• Molecule is flat (planar)
Let’s compare it with the options:
A. NH3 (Ammonia)
• Geometry: Trigonal pyramidal
• Has 1 lone pair on nitrogen
• Bond angle ≈ 107°
• Not planar
B. PF₃ (Phosphorus trifluoride)
• Geometry: Trigonal pyramidal
• Has a lone pair on phosphorus
• Bond angle < 109.5°
• Not planar
C. XeO3 (Xenon trioxide)
• Geometry: Trigonal pyramidal
• Has a lone pair on xenon
Not planar
D. BF3 (Boron trifluoride)
• Geometry: Trigonal planar
• No lone pairs on boron
• Bond angles = 120°
• Planar molecule — just like SO3. -
Question 133 of 180
133. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryAn electron jumps from 5th orbit to 3rd orbit of H atom given rise to a photon belonging to:
Correct
Explanation: D
When an electron in a hydrogen atom jumps from a higher energy level (n = 5) to a lower energy level (n = 3), the emitted photon falls into a specific spectral series depending on the final energy level (n_final):
Given:
Initial orbit (n₁) = 5
Final orbit (n₂) = 3
Spectral Series Summary (Hydrogen atom)

Since the electron ends at n = 3, the transition belongs to the Paschen series, which lies in the infrared region.
Incorrect
Explanation: D
When an electron in a hydrogen atom jumps from a higher energy level (n = 5) to a lower energy level (n = 3), the emitted photon falls into a specific spectral series depending on the final energy level (n_final):
Given:
Initial orbit (n₁) = 5
Final orbit (n₂) = 3
Spectral Series Summary (Hydrogen atom)

Since the electron ends at n = 3, the transition belongs to the Paschen series, which lies in the infrared region.
-
Question 134 of 180
134. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryAcidic buffer consists of:
Correct
Explanation: B
The formation of a buffer solution requires a weak base OR a weak acid with its salt with a strong acid OR a strong base respectively, which is only stated in option B.
A and C are incorrect because strong acid with its salt does not form a buffer solution; weak acids with its salt forms a buffer solution.
D is theoretically not possible because a weak acid cannot react with a weak base to form a salt.Incorrect
Explanation: B
The formation of a buffer solution requires a weak base OR a weak acid with its salt with a strong acid OR a strong base respectively, which is only stated in option B.
A and C are incorrect because strong acid with its salt does not form a buffer solution; weak acids with its salt forms a buffer solution.
D is theoretically not possible because a weak acid cannot react with a weak base to form a salt. -
Question 135 of 180
135. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryIn the reaction:
Zn + Cu2+ → Zn2+ + Cu
Which species is oxidized?
A. Zn
B. Cu2+
C. Zn2+
D. CuCorrect
Explanation A
Oxidation and Reduction Basics:
Oxidation = Loss of electrons
Reduction = Gain of electrons|
Given Reaction:
Zn + Cu2+ → Zn2+ + Cu
Let’s look the oxidation state of each element:

Zinc (Zn) is oxidized because it loses electrons and becomes Zn2+.
Copper ion (Cu2+) is reduced because it gains electrons and becomes Cu.Incorrect
Explanation A
Oxidation and Reduction Basics:
Oxidation = Loss of electrons
Reduction = Gain of electrons|
Given Reaction:
Zn + Cu2+ → Zn2+ + Cu
Let’s look the oxidation state of each element:

Zinc (Zn) is oxidized because it loses electrons and becomes Zn2+.
Copper ion (Cu2+) is reduced because it gains electrons and becomes Cu. -
Question 136 of 180
136. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryIn: 2Na + Cl2 → 2NaCl
What is the limiting reactant?
If 46g Na and 35.5g Cl2 are used?
A. Na
B. Cl2
C. Both
D. NaClCorrect
Explanation B
Incorrect
Explanation B

-
Question 137 of 180
137. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryCoordination number is high when solids adapt close packings as hexagonal & cubic close packings. Coordination number in these packings is:
Correct
Explanation: C
Cubic & hexagonal close packings have coordination number 12.
Close Packings in Solids
There are two main types of close packings in crystalline solids:
Hexagonal Close Packing (HCP)
Cubic Close Packing (CCP) / Face-Centered Cubic (FCC)
Coordination Number in HCP and CCP:
In both HCP and CCP packings:
Each atom is surrounded by 12 other atoms at equal distances.
So, the coordination number = 12.
Let’s visualize:
In these close-packed structures:
6 atoms surround the central atom in the same layer.
3 atoms are above the central atom.
3 atoms are below the central atom.
Total neighbors = 6 + 3 + 3 = 12 nearest neighbors
Comparison with Other Structures:
Incorrect
Explanation: C
Cubic & hexagonal close packings have coordination number 12.
Close Packings in Solids
There are two main types of close packings in crystalline solids:
Hexagonal Close Packing (HCP)
Cubic Close Packing (CCP) / Face-Centered Cubic (FCC)
Coordination Number in HCP and CCP:
In both HCP and CCP packings:
Each atom is surrounded by 12 other atoms at equal distances.
So, the coordination number = 12.
Let’s visualize:
In these close-packed structures:
6 atoms surround the central atom in the same layer.
3 atoms are above the central atom.
3 atoms are below the central atom.
Total neighbors = 6 + 3 + 3 = 12 nearest neighbors
Comparison with Other Structures:

-
Question 138 of 180
138. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryWhich molecule uses sp3 hybrid orbitals to bind with surrounding atoms?
A. H2O
B. NH3
C. CH4
D. AllCorrect
Explanation: D
All of these molecules have sp3 hybridized central atoms.
Formula for hybridization = No. of lone pairs on central atom + atoms attached to central atom
So, in all cases the value comes 4 which is equal to sp3.Incorrect
Explanation: D
All of these molecules have sp3 hybridized central atoms.
Formula for hybridization = No. of lone pairs on central atom + atoms attached to central atom
So, in all cases the value comes 4 which is equal to sp3. -
Question 139 of 180
139. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryElectron residing in a “d” orbital can never have which quantum number?
Correct
Explanation: A
N = 2 is not possible for d electron since 2nd shell can accommodate maximum 8 electrons which can be filled in s and p orbitals ,so no d orbital.Incorrect
Explanation: A
N = 2 is not possible for d electron since 2nd shell can accommodate maximum 8 electrons which can be filled in s and p orbitals ,so no d orbital. -
Question 140 of 180
140. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryWhich pair is correctly arranged in increasing bond energy?
Correct
Explanation B
C – C < C = C < C ≡ C
Tip:
Bond order ↑ ⇒ Bond energy ↑
Single < Double < Triple.Incorrect
Explanation B
C – C < C = C < C ≡ C
Tip:
Bond order ↑ ⇒ Bond energy ↑
Single < Double < Triple. -
Question 141 of 180
141. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryWhich of the following does not form a buffer solution?
A. NH4OH + NH4Cl
B. CH3COOH + CH3COONa
C. C6H5COOH + C6H5COONa
D. HCl + NaClCorrect
Explanation: D
For the formation of a buffer, there should be a weak acid OR a weak base together with its salt.
Since option D has a strong acid (HCl) and its salt (NaCl), a buffer solution cannot be formed with this combination.
Option A has a weak base and its salt.
Options B and C have weak acids and their salts.
These combinations can form buffer solutions so, they are not correct options.Incorrect
Explanation: D
For the formation of a buffer, there should be a weak acid OR a weak base together with its salt.
Since option D has a strong acid (HCl) and its salt (NaCl), a buffer solution cannot be formed with this combination.
Option A has a weak base and its salt.
Options B and C have weak acids and their salts.
These combinations can form buffer solutions so, they are not correct options. -
Question 142 of 180
142. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryTwo plates Ag (E = 0.8V) & Cu (E = 0.34V) are coupled together. In a voltaic cell generated by them, true statement about the cell is:
Correct
Explanation: B
In a voltaic cell, the metal with the higher reduction potential (more positive E°) acts as the cathode (where reduction occurs), and the metal with the lower reduction potential acts as the anode (where oxidation occurs).
So here:
• Ag+ + e– → Ag (E° = +0.80 V) → Cathode
• Cu → Cu2+ + 2e– (E° = +0.35 V) → Anode
Electrons flow from anode to cathode, i.e., from Cu to Ag.
So, Option B is correct
Cu donates electrons to Ag
Cu is oxidized (loses electrons), and Ag⁺ is reduced (gains electrons). Electrons flow from Cu to Ag.Incorrect
Explanation: B
In a voltaic cell, the metal with the higher reduction potential (more positive E°) acts as the cathode (where reduction occurs), and the metal with the lower reduction potential acts as the anode (where oxidation occurs).
So here:
• Ag+ + e– → Ag (E° = +0.80 V) → Cathode
• Cu → Cu2+ + 2e– (E° = +0.35 V) → Anode
Electrons flow from anode to cathode, i.e., from Cu to Ag.
So, Option B is correct
Cu donates electrons to Ag
Cu is oxidized (loses electrons), and Ag⁺ is reduced (gains electrons). Electrons flow from Cu to Ag. -
Question 143 of 180
143. Question
1 pointsCategory: Chemistry24g of CH4 is completely burnt in excess of oxygen in laboratory to give off 28dm3 of CO2, percentage yield of CO2 is?
Correct
Explanation: B
Moles of CH4 = 24g / 16g = 1.5
Balanced eq: CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O
Acc. to eq 1.5 moles of CH4 should give 1.5 moles of CO2 = 1.5 × 44g = 66g
Actual yield of CO2 = 28dm3 = 1.25 mol = 55g
%age yield = 55g/66g × 100% = 83.33%. close to option B 83%Incorrect
Explanation: B
Moles of CH4 = 24g / 16g = 1.5
Balanced eq: CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O
Acc. to eq 1.5 moles of CH4 should give 1.5 moles of CO2 = 1.5 × 44g = 66g
Actual yield of CO2 = 28dm3 = 1.25 mol = 55g
%age yield = 55g/66g × 100% = 83.33%. close to option B 83% -
Question 144 of 180
144. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryLattice energy is highest in ionic solid formed by:
A. MgO
B. CaCl2
C. NaF
D. LiClCorrect
Explanation: A
Lattice energy is directly proportional to charge & inverse of size. Mg (group 2) has greater charge but a smaller size so lattice energy is highest.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Lattice energy is directly proportional to charge & inverse of size. Mg (group 2) has greater charge but a smaller size so lattice energy is highest. -
Question 145 of 180
145. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryVolume of a gas is doubled if:
Correct
Explanation: C
Incorrect
Explanation: C

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Question 146 of 180
146. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryWhich of the following is not a characteristic of chemical equilibrium?
Correct
Explanation: C
Cannot be achieved from either side
• not true. Equilibrium can be achieved regardless of starting point:
Whether you begin with only reactants or only products, the system will adjust until equilibrium is reached.
• Therefore, this statement is not a characteristic of equilibrium.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Cannot be achieved from either side
• not true. Equilibrium can be achieved regardless of starting point:
Whether you begin with only reactants or only products, the system will adjust until equilibrium is reached.
• Therefore, this statement is not a characteristic of equilibrium. -
Question 147 of 180
147. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryWhen concentration of all reactants is taken as unity, the rate constant would be called:
Correct
Explanation: B
Specific rate constant is the rate of reaction when conc. of reactants is taken as unity because in this case the rate of reaction would also be equal to the rate constant.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Specific rate constant is the rate of reaction when conc. of reactants is taken as unity because in this case the rate of reaction would also be equal to the rate constant. -
Question 148 of 180
148. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryWhat is the purpose of the Standard Hydrogen Electrode (SHE) in electrochemistry?
Correct
Explanation: C
The Standard Hydrogen Electrode (SHE) is used as a reference electrode in electrochemistry and is assigned a standard electrode potential of 0 volts under standard conditions (1 atm H2 gas, 1 M H+, and 25°C).Incorrect
Explanation: C
The Standard Hydrogen Electrode (SHE) is used as a reference electrode in electrochemistry and is assigned a standard electrode potential of 0 volts under standard conditions (1 atm H2 gas, 1 M H+, and 25°C). -
Question 149 of 180
149. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryLiquids with a higher boiling point have low:
Correct
Explanation: D
The boiling point of a liquid depends on intermolecular forces (IMFs) — stronger IMFs require more energy (higher temperature) to break, resulting in a higher boiling point.
Now, let’s see how this relates to each option:
A. IM forces
• Stronger IMFs → higher boiling point
• So, not low, but high
• Incorrect
B. Viscosity
• Stronger IMFs → molecules resist flow → higher viscosity
• Again, not low, but high
• Incorrect
C. Surface tension
• Stronger IMFs → more cohesive force → higher surface tension
• Incorrect
D. Vapor pressure (Correct)
• Stronger IMFs → harder for molecules to escape into vapor phase → lower vapor pressure
• Therefore, liquids with higher boiling points have low vapor pressureIncorrect
Explanation: D
The boiling point of a liquid depends on intermolecular forces (IMFs) — stronger IMFs require more energy (higher temperature) to break, resulting in a higher boiling point.
Now, let’s see how this relates to each option:
A. IM forces
• Stronger IMFs → higher boiling point
• So, not low, but high
• Incorrect
B. Viscosity
• Stronger IMFs → molecules resist flow → higher viscosity
• Again, not low, but high
• Incorrect
C. Surface tension
• Stronger IMFs → more cohesive force → higher surface tension
• Incorrect
D. Vapor pressure (Correct)
• Stronger IMFs → harder for molecules to escape into vapor phase → lower vapor pressure
• Therefore, liquids with higher boiling points have low vapor pressure -
Question 150 of 180
150. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryPositive enthalpy change is seen in:
A. Combustion of methane
B. Decomposition of CaCO3
C. Condensation of vapours
D. Dissolution of anhydrous CuSO4Correct
Explanation: B
A. Combustion of methane
• Exothermic reaction (ΔH < 0)
• Releases heat
• ΔH is negative
B. Decomposition of CaCO3
• Decomposition reactions break bonds → require energy
• Hence, endothermic
• ΔH is positive
C. Condensation of vapors
• Gas → Liquid
• Releases heat (reverse of evaporation)
• Exothermic, so ΔH < 0
D. Dissolution of anhydrous CuSO4
• When anhydrous CuSO4 dissolves, it hydrates and releases heat
• This is generally exothermic
Correct Answer: B. Decomposition of CaCO3
(Because it is an endothermic process with a positive enthalpy change.)Incorrect
Explanation: B
A. Combustion of methane
• Exothermic reaction (ΔH < 0)
• Releases heat
• ΔH is negative
B. Decomposition of CaCO3
• Decomposition reactions break bonds → require energy
• Hence, endothermic
• ΔH is positive
C. Condensation of vapors
• Gas → Liquid
• Releases heat (reverse of evaporation)
• Exothermic, so ΔH < 0
D. Dissolution of anhydrous CuSO4
• When anhydrous CuSO4 dissolves, it hydrates and releases heat
• This is generally exothermic
Correct Answer: B. Decomposition of CaCO3
(Because it is an endothermic process with a positive enthalpy change.) -
Question 151 of 180
151. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryA gas is taken at 10°C, its volume doubles at a temperature of:
A. 20°C
B. 20K
C. 283°C
D. 293°CCorrect
Explanation: D
Incorrect
Explanation: D

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Question 152 of 180
152. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryWhich condition favors maximum yield of ammonia in the Haber process?
N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3 + HeatCorrect
Explanation: B
1. Effect of Pressure
Reactants: 1 mol of N2 + 3 mol of H2 = 4 moles of gas
Products: 2 mol of NH3 = 2 moles of gas
Therefore, decrease in number of moles during the forward reaction.
According to Le Chatelier’s Principle, increasing pressure favors the side with fewer gas molecules → here, the forward reaction (towards NH3) is favored.
So, high pressure favors ammonia formation.
2. Effect of Temperature
The reaction is exothermic (releases heat).
So, lower temperature will favor the forward reaction (to counteract the decrease in heat).
Conclusion:
Forward reaction is exothermic and forms fewer moles.
High pressure → favors side with fewer moles.
Low temperature → favors exothermic reaction.Incorrect
Explanation: B
1. Effect of Pressure
Reactants: 1 mol of N2 + 3 mol of H2 = 4 moles of gas
Products: 2 mol of NH3 = 2 moles of gas
Therefore, decrease in number of moles during the forward reaction.
According to Le Chatelier’s Principle, increasing pressure favors the side with fewer gas molecules → here, the forward reaction (towards NH3) is favored.
So, high pressure favors ammonia formation.
2. Effect of Temperature
The reaction is exothermic (releases heat).
So, lower temperature will favor the forward reaction (to counteract the decrease in heat).
Conclusion:
Forward reaction is exothermic and forms fewer moles.
High pressure → favors side with fewer moles.
Low temperature → favors exothermic reaction. -
Question 153 of 180
153. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryA reaction is given as 2A + B → 2C. If the concentration of A is 2 & that of B is 1, the rate of reaction is 20. Specific rate constant equals to:
Correct
Explanation: A
Rate equation : r = K [A]2[B]1
20 = K [2]2 [1]
K = 5.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Rate equation : r = K [A]2[B]1
20 = K [2]2 [1]
K = 5. -
Question 154 of 180
154. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryLondon forces are the major forces found in:
A. Acetone
B. Chloroform
C. Benzene
D. H2OCorrect
Explanation: C
London dispersion forces (also called induced dipole-induced dipole forces) are:
• The weakest type of Van der Waals forces
• Present in all molecules, but are dominant in non-polar molecules
Now evaluate the options:
A. Acetone
• Polar molecule
• Dominated by dipole–dipole forces
B. Chloroform (CHCl3)
• Polar molecule
• Dominated by dipole–dipole forces and some London forces
C. Benzene (C6H6)
• Non-polar molecule
• Cannot form dipole–dipole or hydrogen bonds
• So, London dispersion forces are the major forces
D. H2O (Water)
• Strongly polar
• Dominated by hydrogen bonding.Incorrect
Explanation: C
London dispersion forces (also called induced dipole-induced dipole forces) are:
• The weakest type of Van der Waals forces
• Present in all molecules, but are dominant in non-polar molecules
Now evaluate the options:
A. Acetone
• Polar molecule
• Dominated by dipole–dipole forces
B. Chloroform (CHCl3)
• Polar molecule
• Dominated by dipole–dipole forces and some London forces
C. Benzene (C6H6)
• Non-polar molecule
• Cannot form dipole–dipole or hydrogen bonds
• So, London dispersion forces are the major forces
D. H2O (Water)
• Strongly polar
• Dominated by hydrogen bonding. -
Question 155 of 180
155. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryIf products are more stable than reactants in a reaction, the enthalpy change is:
Correct
Explanation: B
If products are more stable than reactants then they have lower energy & system releases energy when reactants convert to products so enthalpy change is exothermic & hence negative.Incorrect
Explanation: B
If products are more stable than reactants then they have lower energy & system releases energy when reactants convert to products so enthalpy change is exothermic & hence negative. -
Question 156 of 180
156. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistrySame mass of H2, He, CH4 & O2 are taken in individual containers, maximum volume is possessed by:
A. H2
B. He
C. CH4
D. O2Correct
Explanation: A
To solve this, we use the Ideal Gas Law:
V = nRT/P or V ∝ n (at constant T and P)
Key Insight:
For same mass of each gas:
• Volume is directly proportional to number of moles.
• Moles n = mass/molar mass
So, lower the molar mass, higher the number of moles, and hence larger the volume.

Option A. H₂, Because it has the lowest molar mass, so for the same mass, it has the most moles, hence maximum volume.
Incorrect
Explanation: A
To solve this, we use the Ideal Gas Law:
V = nRT/P or V ∝ n (at constant T and P)
Key Insight:
For same mass of each gas:
• Volume is directly proportional to number of moles.
• Moles n = mass/molar mass
So, lower the molar mass, higher the number of moles, and hence larger the volume.

Option A. H₂, Because it has the lowest molar mass, so for the same mass, it has the most moles, hence maximum volume.
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Question 157 of 180
157. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryA catalyst:
Correct
Explanation: B
A catalyst increases the rate of both forward and reverse reaction, making the system reach equilibrium faster.Incorrect
Explanation: B
A catalyst increases the rate of both forward and reverse reaction, making the system reach equilibrium faster. -
Question 158 of 180
158. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryWhich pair of liquids when mixed together result in overall decrease in total volume of mixture:
A. Benzene & toluene
B. Chloroform & acetone
C. CCl4 & benzene
D. Water & methanolCorrect
Explanation: B
When certain liquids are mixed, the total volume of the mixture may be less than the sum of their individual volumes. This occurs due to:
• Strong intermolecular interactions after mixing
• Molecules packing more efficiently due to new attractive forces
Why Chloroform & Acetone?
• Before mixing: Both have dipole–dipole interactions.
• After mixing:
Chloroform (CHCl3) has a hydrogen atom bonded to electronegative chlorine.
Acetone has a lone pair on oxygen in its carbonyl group.
Together, they form intermolecular hydrogen bonds:
CCl3—H ⋯ O = C(CH3)2
This stronger attraction causes closer packing, which results in a decrease in total volume.
Incorrect Options:
• A. Benzene & Toluene: Both are non-polar; mixing shows nearly ideal behavior → no significant volume change.
• C. CCl4 & Benzene: Both are non-polar, similar to above → no significant shrinkage.
• D. Water & Methanol: Both form hydrogen bonds, but they already do this individually. Mixing is nearly ideal or slightly contracting, but not as significantly as chloroform + acetone.Incorrect
Explanation: B
When certain liquids are mixed, the total volume of the mixture may be less than the sum of their individual volumes. This occurs due to:
• Strong intermolecular interactions after mixing
• Molecules packing more efficiently due to new attractive forces
Why Chloroform & Acetone?
• Before mixing: Both have dipole–dipole interactions.
• After mixing:
Chloroform (CHCl3) has a hydrogen atom bonded to electronegative chlorine.
Acetone has a lone pair on oxygen in its carbonyl group.
Together, they form intermolecular hydrogen bonds:
CCl3—H ⋯ O = C(CH3)2
This stronger attraction causes closer packing, which results in a decrease in total volume.
Incorrect Options:
• A. Benzene & Toluene: Both are non-polar; mixing shows nearly ideal behavior → no significant volume change.
• C. CCl4 & Benzene: Both are non-polar, similar to above → no significant shrinkage.
• D. Water & Methanol: Both form hydrogen bonds, but they already do this individually. Mixing is nearly ideal or slightly contracting, but not as significantly as chloroform + acetone. -
Question 159 of 180
159. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryWhich of the following reactions will have ∆H = 0 according to Hess’s Law?
A. N2(g) → 2N(g)
B. H2O(g) → H2(g) + 1/2O2(g)
C. C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g)
D. None of theseCorrect
Explanation: D
Option D: A reaction will have ∆H = 0 only if there is no net chemical or physical change—i.e., the products are identical to the reactants in every way (same phase, bonding, structure, etc.).
A. N2(g) → 2N(g):
This is the dissociation of nitrogen gas into individual nitrogen atoms.
Breaking the strong N ≡ N triple bond requires a large amount of energy.
So, ∆H > 0 (endothermic) (Not zero)
B. H2O(g) → H2(g) + 1/2O2(g):
This is the decomposition of water vapor into hydrogen and oxygen gases.
Bonds in water molecules are broken, also requires energy.
∆H > 0 (endothermic) (Not zero)
C. C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g):
This is a combustion reaction (carbon burning in oxygen).
Releases a large amount of energy.
∆H < 0 (exothermic) (Not zero).Incorrect
Explanation: D
Option D: A reaction will have ∆H = 0 only if there is no net chemical or physical change—i.e., the products are identical to the reactants in every way (same phase, bonding, structure, etc.).
A. N2(g) → 2N(g):
This is the dissociation of nitrogen gas into individual nitrogen atoms.
Breaking the strong N ≡ N triple bond requires a large amount of energy.
So, ∆H > 0 (endothermic) (Not zero)
B. H2O(g) → H2(g) + 1/2O2(g):
This is the decomposition of water vapor into hydrogen and oxygen gases.
Bonds in water molecules are broken, also requires energy.
∆H > 0 (endothermic) (Not zero)
C. C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g):
This is a combustion reaction (carbon burning in oxygen).
Releases a large amount of energy.
∆H < 0 (exothermic) (Not zero). -
Question 160 of 180
160. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryWhich of the following does NOT exhibit the common ion effect?
A. AgCl in NaCl
B. NH4OH in NH4Cl
C. CH3COOH in CH3COONa
D. Na2CO3 in NaOHCorrect
Explanation: D
Na2CO3 gives:
Na2CO3 → 2Na+ + CO32–
NaOH gives:
NaOH → Na+ +OH–
There is no common weak electrolyte involved here. Both are strong electrolytes, and CO32– and OH– are not common ions between a weak acid/base and a salt.
The presence of NaOH does not suppress any weak dissociation of Na2CO3. Instead, it may enhance carbonate ion hydrolysis, making the solution more basic, but this is not common ion effect.
No common ion effect is observed.
A. AgCl in NaCl:
• AgCl is a sparingly soluble salt, which partially dissociates in water:
AgCl (s) ⇌ Ag+ + Cl–
• Adding NaCl increases the concentration of Cl– ions (common ion).
• This shifts the equilibrium to the left (Le Chatelier’s Principle), decreasing solubility of AgCl.
Common ion effect is observed.
B. NH4OH in NH4Cl:
• NH4OH is a weak base, dissociating as:
NH4OH ⇌ NH4+ + OH–
• NH4OH is a strong electrolyte, giving NH4+ ions, a common ion.
• This suppresses the dissociation of NH4OH (shifts equilibrium to the left).
Common ion effect is observed.
C. CH3COOH in CH3COONa:
• CH3COOH is a weak acid:
CH3COOH ⇌ CH3COO– + H+
• CH3COONa is a strong electrolyte, providing CH3COO– ions.
• These common ions suppress the ionization of CH3COOH.
• Common ion effect is observed.Incorrect
Explanation: D
Na2CO3 gives:
Na2CO3 → 2Na+ + CO32–
NaOH gives:
NaOH → Na+ +OH–
There is no common weak electrolyte involved here. Both are strong electrolytes, and CO32– and OH– are not common ions between a weak acid/base and a salt.
The presence of NaOH does not suppress any weak dissociation of Na2CO3. Instead, it may enhance carbonate ion hydrolysis, making the solution more basic, but this is not common ion effect.
No common ion effect is observed.
A. AgCl in NaCl:
• AgCl is a sparingly soluble salt, which partially dissociates in water:
AgCl (s) ⇌ Ag+ + Cl–
• Adding NaCl increases the concentration of Cl– ions (common ion).
• This shifts the equilibrium to the left (Le Chatelier’s Principle), decreasing solubility of AgCl.
Common ion effect is observed.
B. NH4OH in NH4Cl:
• NH4OH is a weak base, dissociating as:
NH4OH ⇌ NH4+ + OH–
• NH4OH is a strong electrolyte, giving NH4+ ions, a common ion.
• This suppresses the dissociation of NH4OH (shifts equilibrium to the left).
Common ion effect is observed.
C. CH3COOH in CH3COONa:
• CH3COOH is a weak acid:
CH3COOH ⇌ CH3COO– + H+
• CH3COONa is a strong electrolyte, providing CH3COO– ions.
• These common ions suppress the ionization of CH3COOH.
• Common ion effect is observed. -
Question 161 of 180
161. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryGases behave ideally at:
Correct
Explanation: A
Ideal behaviour is observed when:
• Pressure is Low → gas molecules are far apart → less interaction
• Temperature is High → molecules move faster → intermolecular forces become negligible
So, under low pressure and high temperature, gases behave most like ideal gases.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Ideal behaviour is observed when:
• Pressure is Low → gas molecules are far apart → less interaction
• Temperature is High → molecules move faster → intermolecular forces become negligible
So, under low pressure and high temperature, gases behave most like ideal gases. -
Question 162 of 180
162. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryTwo reactions are given as:
N2O4 → N2 + 2O2 K1
2N2 + 4O2 → 2N2O4 K2
The relationship between equilibrium constants of both reactions is:
A. K1 = 1/K2
B. K2 = 1/K12
C. K2 = 2K1
D. K1 = 1/2K2Correct
Explanation: B
Incorrect
Explanation: B

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Question 163 of 180
163. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnglishNeither the interns nor Ali submitted ______________ evaluation on time.
Correct
Explanation: B
With “neither … nor,” the pronoun agrees with the closest subject, which is Dr. Ali, a singular noun. Therefore, “him” is the correct pronoun. If the closest subject to the pronoun was a gender neutral word like “the doctor, the surgeon, Dr. Ali” where there is no clue about the gender of the subject, then use pronoun “his or her”.Incorrect
Explanation: B
With “neither … nor,” the pronoun agrees with the closest subject, which is Dr. Ali, a singular noun. Therefore, “him” is the correct pronoun. If the closest subject to the pronoun was a gender neutral word like “the doctor, the surgeon, Dr. Ali” where there is no clue about the gender of the subject, then use pronoun “his or her”. -
Question 164 of 180
164. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnglishThe old photo was stuck ___________ the pages of the diary.
Correct
Explanation: D
These are prepositions of position/place.
• “Between” is used for two specific pages.
• “Among” is for more than two items, like “among many books.”
• “Under” doesn’t work because it’s not beneath the diary.
• “Into” implies movement rather than a position.Incorrect
Explanation: D
These are prepositions of position/place.
• “Between” is used for two specific pages.
• “Among” is for more than two items, like “among many books.”
• “Under” doesn’t work because it’s not beneath the diary.
• “Into” implies movement rather than a position. -
Question 165 of 180
165. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnglishIdentify the noun phrase, NOT a compound noun.
Correct
Explanation: D
A noun phrase is a group of words that acts as a noun in a sentence. It usually includes a noun (or pronoun) and its modifiers—such as articles, adjectives, determiners, and prepositional phrases
• “Fast car” is an adjective + noun → a noun phrase, not a compound.
• A, B, and C are compound nouns:
• Keyboard (compound: noun + noun)
• Swimming pool (Verb + Noun)
• Car engine (Noun + Noun).Incorrect
Explanation: D
A noun phrase is a group of words that acts as a noun in a sentence. It usually includes a noun (or pronoun) and its modifiers—such as articles, adjectives, determiners, and prepositional phrases
• “Fast car” is an adjective + noun → a noun phrase, not a compound.
• A, B, and C are compound nouns:
• Keyboard (compound: noun + noun)
• Swimming pool (Verb + Noun)
• Car engine (Noun + Noun). -
Question 166 of 180
166. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnglishThe child climbed _____________ the table to reach the cookies.
Correct
Explanation: C
These are prepositions of direction.
• “Onto” means movement to a surface, like the top of something. It is the correct option.
• “Toward” means in the direction of something — doesn’t guarantee reaching or touching it.
• “Into” is used for movement inside an enclosed space.
• “Over” means above or across something — not onto it.Incorrect
Explanation: C
These are prepositions of direction.
• “Onto” means movement to a surface, like the top of something. It is the correct option.
• “Toward” means in the direction of something — doesn’t guarantee reaching or touching it.
• “Into” is used for movement inside an enclosed space.
• “Over” means above or across something — not onto it. -
Question 167 of 180
167. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnglishThe bouquet of roses gave off ____________ fragrance.
Correct
Explanation: B
• “Bouquet” is the main subject (singular), not “roses”.
• Prepositional phrase: “of roses”
• So, the correct singular possessive pronoun is “its”.
• “It’s” = it is (not possessive).
• “Their” = plural (incorrect).
• “There” = adverb (wrong usage).Incorrect
Explanation: B
• “Bouquet” is the main subject (singular), not “roses”.
• Prepositional phrase: “of roses”
• So, the correct singular possessive pronoun is “its”.
• “It’s” = it is (not possessive).
• “Their” = plural (incorrect).
• “There” = adverb (wrong usage). -
Question 168 of 180
168. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnglishThe company had been losing profits steadily _________ the financial crisis began.
Correct
Explanation: C
• Use “since” with a specific point in time in the past.
• “The financial crisis began” is a defined event, so “since” fits best.
• “For” would require a duration (e.g., for five years).
• “From” would need a range (e.g., from 2008 to 2012).
• “By” is irrelevant—it’s for deadlines.Incorrect
Explanation: C
• Use “since” with a specific point in time in the past.
• “The financial crisis began” is a defined event, so “since” fits best.
• “For” would require a duration (e.g., for five years).
• “From” would need a range (e.g., from 2008 to 2012).
• “By” is irrelevant—it’s for deadlines. -
Question 169 of 180
169. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnglishMcKinley & Sons offers __________ clients a full refund policy.
Correct
Explanation: B
• Though “McKinley & Sons” appears plural, it refers to a single company.
• Singular business = singular pronoun → its.
• “Their” is used when the focus is on people, not the organization as a unit.Incorrect
Explanation: B
• Though “McKinley & Sons” appears plural, it refers to a single company.
• Singular business = singular pronoun → its.
• “Their” is used when the focus is on people, not the organization as a unit. -
Question 170 of 180
170. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnglishAhmad walked __________ the room without knocking, startling everyone.
Correct
Explanation: B
“Into” is a preposition of movement/ direction.
“Walked into the room” = movement from outside to inside.
“Walked in the room” would mean already inside and walking around. “In” doesn’t fit the context or the sentence.Incorrect
Explanation: B
“Into” is a preposition of movement/ direction.
“Walked into the room” = movement from outside to inside.
“Walked in the room” would mean already inside and walking around. “In” doesn’t fit the context or the sentence. -
Question 171 of 180
171. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnglishAll of the evidence has shown ____________ importance in the case.
Correct
Explanation: A
• “Evidence” is an uncountable noun, treated as singular.
• Use “its” to indicate possession.Incorrect
Explanation: A
• “Evidence” is an uncountable noun, treated as singular.
• Use “its” to indicate possession. -
Question 172 of 180
172. Question
1 pointsCategory: Logical ReasoningStatements – No Flag is Board.
Some Flag are game.
No game is baseball
Conclusions (I) Some game are Flag
(II) No baseball is BoardCorrect
Explanation A
Incorrect
Explanation A

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Question 173 of 180
173. Question
1 pointsCategory: Logical ReasoningC,Z,F,X,I,V,L,T,O,?,?
Correct
Explanation C
Incorrect
Explanation C

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Question 174 of 180
174. Question
1 pointsCategory: Logical ReasoningThree pencils cost the same as two erasers.
Four erasers cost the same as one ruler.
Pencils are more expensive than rulers.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is:Correct
Explanation: B
Rulers are the most expensive item.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Rulers are the most expensive item. -
Question 175 of 180
175. Question
1 pointsCategory: Logical ReasoningStatement
All tea are Cold
Some Cold are drinks
All drinks are Juice
Conclusions
(I) All Cold are tea
(II) some drink can be Juice.
(III) Atleast some Juice are drinksCorrect
Explanation C
Incorrect
Explanation C

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Question 176 of 180
176. Question
1 pointsCategory: Logical ReasoningStatement:
I < M < F ≤ D ≤ S = J
Conclusions:
l) S < M
II) F = S
III) ∣ > J
IV) M < DCorrect
Explanation B
Incorrect
Explanation B

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Question 177 of 180
177. Question
1 pointsCategory: Logical Reasoning
Correct
Explanation A
Incorrect
Explanation A

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Question 178 of 180
178. Question
1 pointsCategory: Logical ReasoningStatement:
I. All jungles are tigers.
II. Some tigers are horses.
Conclusions:
I. Some tigers are jungles.
II. All horses are jungles.Correct
Explanation: A

Hence only I follows.
Incorrect
Explanation: A

Hence only I follows.
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Question 179 of 180
179. Question
1 pointsCategory: Logical ReasoningKM5,IP8,GS11,EV14,?
Correct
Explanation: C
Incorrect
Explanation: C

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Question 180 of 180
180. Question
1 pointsCategory: Logical ReasoningFour friends in the sixth grade were sharing a pizza. They decided that the oldest friend would get the extra piece. Raheel is two months older than Gul, who is three months younger than Nabeel. Kashif is one month older than Gul. Who should get the extra piece of pizza?
Correct
Explanation: C
If Raheel is two months older than Gul, then Nabeel is three months older than Gul and one month older than Raheel. Kashif is younger than both Raheel and Nabeel. Nabeel is the oldest.
Incorrect
Explanation: C
If Raheel is two months older than Gul, then Nabeel is three months older than Gul and one month older than Raheel. Kashif is younger than both Raheel and Nabeel. Nabeel is the oldest.
