Test-14 2025
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Information
- Format: Online – From Home
- Total # of MCQs: 180
Biology = 81 + Physics = 36 + Chemistry = 45 + English = 9 + Logical Reasoning = 9 - Time Duration : 180 Minute (3 hours)
The Test is Programmed with Time Restriction, Which will Teach you Time Management. - No Negative Marking
So, Attempt all the Questions. - Kindly keep some rough pages and pen with you for rough work
- The Explanations of all the MCQ’s will be provided to you with Your Right & Wrong Answers on completion of this Test.
- Bismillah & Darood Sharif Phr k, Start your Test/Quiz, and Attempt it with Full Concentration.
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Question 1 of 180
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsFour projectiles are fired with the same velocity at angle, 25o,40o,55o and 70o with the horizontal. The range of projectile will be largest for the one projected at angle
A. 70o
B. 40o
C. 55o
D. 25oCorrect
Explanation: B
R ∝ sin(2θ)
So, to maximize the range, you want to maximize sin(2θ).
Shortcut – Key Rule to Remember:
sin(2θ) is maximum when 2θ = 900
⇒ So, θ=450 gives maximum range
Angles close to 45° will give larger range
than those further away from 45°
Incorrect
Explanation: B
R ∝ sin(2θ)
So, to maximize the range, you want to maximize sin(2θ).
Shortcut – Key Rule to Remember:
sin(2θ) is maximum when 2θ = 900
⇒ So, θ=450 gives maximum range
Angles close to 45° will give larger range
than those further away from 45°

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Question 2 of 180
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsWhich of the following best represents a condition where current lags behind voltage?
Correct
Explanation: B
XL = ωL (Inductive reactance)
XC = 1/ωC (Capacitive reactance)
• When XL > XC → Inductive dominance
⇒ Current Lags Voltage
• XC > XL → Capacitive reactance
⇒ Current Leads Voltage.
Incorrect
Explanation: B
XL = ωL (Inductive reactance)
XC = 1/ωC (Capacitive reactance)
• When XL > XC → Inductive dominance
⇒ Current Lags Voltage
• XC > XL → Capacitive reactance
⇒ Current Leads Voltage.

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Question 3 of 180
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsA child is sitting on a swing. Its minimum and maximum heights from the ground are 0.75 m and 2 m respectively. What will be its maximum speed?
Correct
Explanation A
Incorrect
Explanation A

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Question 4 of 180
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsWhich wave lies just beyond the red end of the visible spectrum?
Correct
Explanation D
The visible spectrum of light extends roughly from violet (≈ 400 nm) to red (≈ 700 nm) in wavelength.
Waves beyond the red end have longer wavelengths and lower frequencies than visible light.
These are known as infrared (IR) waves.
Electromagnetic Spectrum Order (increasing wavelength):
Gamma rays < X – rays < UV < Visible light < Infrared < Microwaves < Radio waves
Hints:
Beyond violet (shorter wavelength) → Ultraviolet
Beyond red (longer wavelength) → Infrared.Incorrect
Explanation D
The visible spectrum of light extends roughly from violet (≈ 400 nm) to red (≈ 700 nm) in wavelength.
Waves beyond the red end have longer wavelengths and lower frequencies than visible light.
These are known as infrared (IR) waves.
Electromagnetic Spectrum Order (increasing wavelength):
Gamma rays < X – rays < UV < Visible light < Infrared < Microwaves < Radio waves
Hints:
Beyond violet (shorter wavelength) → Ultraviolet
Beyond red (longer wavelength) → Infrared. -
Question 5 of 180
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsTwo identical spheres, A and B, are dropped from the same height into different fluids. Sphere A falls in a more viscous fluid, while Sphere B falls in a less viscous fluid. Which sphere reaches terminal velocity first, and which has the greater terminal velocity?
Correct
Explanation C
Both spheres are identical in shape, size, and mass.
They fall through different fluids:
Sphere A → viscous fluid (thicker, more resistance)
Sphere B → less viscous fluid (thinner, less resistance)
So,
vt ∝ 1/η
→ Higher viscosity → lower terminal velocity
Reaching terminal velocity:
In a more viscous fluid, drag builds up quickly → object reaches terminal velocity faster.
In a less viscous fluid, drag builds up slowly → it takes longer to reach terminal velocity.
Incorrect
Explanation C
Both spheres are identical in shape, size, and mass.
They fall through different fluids:
Sphere A → viscous fluid (thicker, more resistance)
Sphere B → less viscous fluid (thinner, less resistance)
So,
vt ∝ 1/η
→ Higher viscosity → lower terminal velocity
Reaching terminal velocity:
In a more viscous fluid, drag builds up quickly → object reaches terminal velocity faster.
In a less viscous fluid, drag builds up slowly → it takes longer to reach terminal velocity.

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Question 6 of 180
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsThe dielectric constant (K) of a medium is always:
Correct
Explanation C
Vacuum is reference
Vacuum = baseline
K = ε / ε₀ → Vacuum has K = 1. All other media have K ≥ 1.Incorrect
Explanation C
Vacuum is reference
Vacuum = baseline
K = ε / ε₀ → Vacuum has K = 1. All other media have K ≥ 1. -
Question 7 of 180
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsTwo vectors A = 5 units at 0° and B = 5 units at 90° are added. What is the magnitude of the resultant?
Correct
Explanation: C
Incorrect
Explanation: C

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Question 8 of 180
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsN/C = :
Correct
Explanation: C
Incorrect
Explanation: C

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Question 9 of 180
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsThe frequency of the fundamental node of open end organ pipe is 400 Hz. If one end of the pipe is closed, the fundamental frequency will be:
Correct
Explanation D
Incorrect
Explanation D

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Question 10 of 180
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsThe half-life of radium is about 1600 years. If a rock initially contains 1g of radium, the amount left after 6400 years will be about:
Correct
Explanation: C
Incorrect
Explanation: C

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Question 11 of 180
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsIf two non-zero vectors are perpendicular, their scalar product is:
Correct
Explanation C
Incorrect
Explanation C

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Question 12 of 180
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsA larger time constant in an RC circuit means:
Correct
Explanation B
The time constant
τ = RC tells us how quickly a capacitor charges or discharges.
Shortcut:
Larger R → current is smaller
Larger C → needs more charge
→ Both make charging slower.Incorrect
Explanation B
The time constant
τ = RC tells us how quickly a capacitor charges or discharges.
Shortcut:
Larger R → current is smaller
Larger C → needs more charge
→ Both make charging slower. -
Question 13 of 180
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsA gas does 12J of external work in adiabatic process while expanding, then the changes in internal energy is:
Correct
Explanation: B
For an adiabatic process, there is no heat exchange between the system and surroundings:
Q = 0
From the first law of thermodynamics:
ΔU = Q – W
ΔU = 0 – 12 =−12J
The internal energy decreases by 10 J, because the gas uses its internal energy to do work during expansion.Incorrect
Explanation: B
For an adiabatic process, there is no heat exchange between the system and surroundings:
Q = 0
From the first law of thermodynamics:
ΔU = Q – W
ΔU = 0 – 12 =−12J
The internal energy decreases by 10 J, because the gas uses its internal energy to do work during expansion. -
Question 14 of 180
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsWhen boron 510B is bombarded by neutrons, α particles are emitted. The resulting nucleus has the mass number
Correct
Explanation: C
Incorrect
Explanation: C

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Question 15 of 180
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsWhich of the following situations describes non-uniform (variable) acceleration?
Correct
Explanation C
In this case, acceleration increases as fuel burns and mass decreases → variable acceleration.
Increasing thrust = increasing acceleration → not constant!
A: In vacuum, free fall has constant acceleration g ⇒ uniform.
B: “Speeding up steadily” implies constant acceleration ⇒ uniform.
D: On a smooth incline, a = gsinθ is constant ⇒ uniform.Incorrect
Explanation C
In this case, acceleration increases as fuel burns and mass decreases → variable acceleration.
Increasing thrust = increasing acceleration → not constant!
A: In vacuum, free fall has constant acceleration g ⇒ uniform.
B: “Speeding up steadily” implies constant acceleration ⇒ uniform.
D: On a smooth incline, a = gsinθ is constant ⇒ uniform. -
Question 16 of 180
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsA battery delivers power of 8W to a 2Ω resistor. If internal resistance is 1Ω, find the EMF.
Correct
Explanation B
Incorrect
Explanation B

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Question 17 of 180
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsWhen the displacement is half of the amplitude, the ratio of potential energy to the total energy is:
Correct
Explanation: B
Incorrect
Explanation: B

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Question 18 of 180
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsThe Balmer series for hydrogen atom corresponds to electronic transitions that terminate in the state of quantum number n = 2. The longest wavenumber of photon emitted is:
Correct
Explanation: A
Incorrect
Explanation: A

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Question 19 of 180
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsWhat happens to the speed of a projectile after the highest point in its motion?
Correct
Explanation C
Increases due to gravity
After the highest point, gravity accelerates the projectile downward. The vertical component of velocity grows in magnitude (downward) while the horizontal component stays constant (ignoring air resistance), so the overall speed increasesIncorrect
Explanation C
Increases due to gravity
After the highest point, gravity accelerates the projectile downward. The vertical component of velocity grows in magnitude (downward) while the horizontal component stays constant (ignoring air resistance), so the overall speed increases -
Question 20 of 180
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsA wire obeys Ohm’s law. What happens to the resistance if the temperature increases significantly?
Correct
Explanation A
Hint: More heat → more collisions
Shortcut: T↑ = R↑ (in metals)
For a metallic conductor that obeys Ohm’s law, the resistance (R) depends on temperature as:
R=R0(1 + αΔT)
B. Decreases: True for semiconductors, not metals.
C. Stays the same: Only for ideal conductors (not real metals).
D. Becomes zero: Only for superconductors at very low temperatures.Incorrect
Explanation A
Hint: More heat → more collisions
Shortcut: T↑ = R↑ (in metals)
For a metallic conductor that obeys Ohm’s law, the resistance (R) depends on temperature as:
R=R0(1 + αΔT)
B. Decreases: True for semiconductors, not metals.
C. Stays the same: Only for ideal conductors (not real metals).
D. Becomes zero: Only for superconductors at very low temperatures. -
Question 21 of 180
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsThe speed of sound in an ideal gas is proportional to:
Correct
Explanation: C
Incorrect
Explanation: C

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Question 22 of 180
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsDuring forward bias, the potential barrier:
Correct
Explanation B
Hint: Forward = help carriers
Shortcut: Forward bias fights the barrier
External voltage in forward bias reduces the built-in electric field, making it easier for carriers to cross.Incorrect
Explanation B
Hint: Forward = help carriers
Shortcut: Forward bias fights the barrier
External voltage in forward bias reduces the built-in electric field, making it easier for carriers to cross. -
Question 23 of 180
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsA ball of mass 2 kg travelling at 8 ms-1 strikes a ball of mass 4kg travelling at 2ms-1. Both balls are moving along the same straight line. After collision, both balls move at the same velocity v. What is the magnitude of the velocity V?
A. 4 ms–1
B. 6 ms–1
C. 5 ms–1
D. 8 ms–1Correct
Explanation A
Since no external force is mentioned and the balls move along a straight line:
Total momentum before collision = Total momentum after collision
Given:
• Mass of ball 1: m1=2 kg, velocity before collision: u1 = 8 m/s
• Mass of ball 2: m2 = 4 kg, velocity before collision: u2 = 2 m/s
• After collision, both balls move together at velocity v
: Apply Conservation of Momentum:
m1 u1 + m2 u2 = (m1 + m2 )v
Substitute values:
2 ⋅ 8 + 4 ⋅ 2 = (2 + 4) v
16 + 8 = 6v
24 = 6v ⇒ v = 24/6 = 4 m/s.Incorrect
Explanation A
Since no external force is mentioned and the balls move along a straight line:
Total momentum before collision = Total momentum after collision
Given:
• Mass of ball 1: m1=2 kg, velocity before collision: u1 = 8 m/s
• Mass of ball 2: m2 = 4 kg, velocity before collision: u2 = 2 m/s
• After collision, both balls move together at velocity v
: Apply Conservation of Momentum:
m1 u1 + m2 u2 = (m1 + m2 )v
Substitute values:
2 ⋅ 8 + 4 ⋅ 2 = (2 + 4) v
16 + 8 = 6v
24 = 6v ⇒ v = 24/6 = 4 m/s. -
Question 24 of 180
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsFor photoelectric emission, tungsten requires light of 2300 Å. If light of wavelength 1800Å is incident, then emission
Correct
Explanation A
Threshold wavelength for tungsten = 2300 Å
Incident wavelength = , which is smaller than the threshold wavelength.
Since f ∝ 1/λ, the frequency for 1800 Å is greater than the threshold frequency, hence the photoelectric effect takes place.Incorrect
Explanation A
Threshold wavelength for tungsten = 2300 Å
Incident wavelength = , which is smaller than the threshold wavelength.
Since f ∝ 1/λ, the frequency for 1800 Å is greater than the threshold frequency, hence the photoelectric effect takes place. -
Question 25 of 180
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsConsider a stretched string under tension and fixed at both ends. If the tension is doubled and the cross-sectional area halved, then the frequency becomes:
Correct
Explanation A
Incorrect
Explanation A

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Question 26 of 180
26. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsWhich of the following is NOT an advantage of full-wave over half-wave rectification?
Correct
Explanation B

Ripple in electronics, which refers to the AC component remaining in a DC power supply, is a disadvantage. A perfectly smooth DC voltage is the ideal for electronic devices, but rectifiers can only produce pulsating DC. The ripple is the undesirable leftover AC voltage or current that can negatively impact performance and cause damage over time. And full-wave rectifiers actually have a higher ripple frequency (twice that of half-wave), not lower.Incorrect
Explanation B

Ripple in electronics, which refers to the AC component remaining in a DC power supply, is a disadvantage. A perfectly smooth DC voltage is the ideal for electronic devices, but rectifiers can only produce pulsating DC. The ripple is the undesirable leftover AC voltage or current that can negatively impact performance and cause damage over time. And full-wave rectifiers actually have a higher ripple frequency (twice that of half-wave), not lower. -
Question 27 of 180
27. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsA body is moving with a speed of 1ms–1 and a force F is needed to stop it in a distance x. If the speed of the body is 3 ms–1, the force needed to stop it in the same distance x will be:
Correct
Explanation: D
Incorrect
Explanation: D

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Question 28 of 180
28. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsIf h is Planck’s constant, the momentum of a photon of wavelength 0.01 Å is:
A. 10–2 h
B. h
C. 102 h
D. 1012 hCorrect
Explanation D
Momentum of a photon: p = h/λ.
Given λ = 0.01 Å = 0.01 × 10–10 m = 10–12 m.
So p = h/10–12 = 1012 h.Incorrect
Explanation D
Momentum of a photon: p = h/λ.
Given λ = 0.01 Å = 0.01 × 10–10 m = 10–12 m.
So p = h/10–12 = 1012 h. -
Question 29 of 180
29. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsWater flows through a pipe that narrows from radius 4 cm to 2 cm. If the speed in the wider section is 2 m/s, what is the speed in the narrower section?
Correct
Explanation C
Use Continuity:
A1v1 = A2v2 (A ∝ r2)
(4)2 ⋅ 2 = (22) ⋅ v2 ⇒ 32 = 4v2 ⇒ v2 = 8.Incorrect
Explanation C
Use Continuity:
A1v1 = A2v2 (A ∝ r2)
(4)2 ⋅ 2 = (22) ⋅ v2 ⇒ 32 = 4v2 ⇒ v2 = 8. -
Question 30 of 180
30. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsA power station generates 1000 A at 10,000 V. To reduce transmission loss, it uses a step-up transformer to raise voltage to 100,000 V. What is the new current?
Correct
Explanation B
Incorrect
Explanation B

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Question 31 of 180
31. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsIf the force is perpendicular to the direction of velocity, then the power is:
Correct
Explanation C
Incorrect
Explanation C

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Question 32 of 180
32. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsThe magnetic force acting on a unit +ve charge moving at right angle to the magnitude field with unit velocity is called:
Correct
Explanation: D
When a unit positive charge moves perpendicular to a magnetic field with unit velocity, the magnetic force acting on it is given by:
F = Bqv sinθ
For given condition:
q = 1, v = 1, sinθ = 1
So,
F = B.
This physical quantity B is called magnetic induction or magnetic flux density (also known as magnetic field strength).vIncorrect
Explanation: D
When a unit positive charge moves perpendicular to a magnetic field with unit velocity, the magnetic force acting on it is given by:
F = Bqv sinθ
For given condition:
q = 1, v = 1, sinθ = 1
So,
F = B.
This physical quantity B is called magnetic induction or magnetic flux density (also known as magnetic field strength).v -
Question 33 of 180
33. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsWhat will happen to linear speed if angular velocity is constant but radius is halved?
Correct
Explanation B
v = ωr
decreasing r ⇒ decreases v
ω = constant
Radius r is halved
Substitute:
v’ = ω ⋅ r/2 = 1/2 ωr = v/2.Incorrect
Explanation B
v = ωr
decreasing r ⇒ decreases v
ω = constant
Radius r is halved
Substitute:
v’ = ω ⋅ r/2 = 1/2 ωr = v/2. -
Question 34 of 180
34. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsA coil made of copper suspended from a fixed support is oscillating freely. If a magnetic dipole is brought near the coil, the coil will:
Correct
Explanation: A
The coil is oscillating freely (moving back and forth).
When the magnetic dipole is brought near it:
Changing flux through the coil → induced currents → magnetic damping.
This opposing effect resists motion (just like friction), converting mechanical energy into heat.
This is a direct application of Lenz’s law and conservation of energy.
Shortcut Trick:
Whenever you see motion + conductor + magnetic field →
Think “Eddy currents oppose motion” → object slows down.Incorrect
Explanation: A
The coil is oscillating freely (moving back and forth).
When the magnetic dipole is brought near it:
Changing flux through the coil → induced currents → magnetic damping.
This opposing effect resists motion (just like friction), converting mechanical energy into heat.
This is a direct application of Lenz’s law and conservation of energy.
Shortcut Trick:
Whenever you see motion + conductor + magnetic field →
Think “Eddy currents oppose motion” → object slows down. -
Question 35 of 180
35. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsA wheel rotates 720°. What is its angular displacement in radians?
Correct
Explanation: B
720° = 2 × 360°= 2 × 2π = 4π radians.Incorrect
Explanation: B
720° = 2 × 360°= 2 × 2π = 4π radians. -
Question 36 of 180
36. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsTwo surfaces have equal area and are placed in the same magnetic field. One makes 0° with B, the other 90°. The ratio of their fluxes is:
Correct
Explanation: C
Φ1 = BAcos0° = BA, Φ2 = BAcos90° = 0
Ratio = 1 : 0
Perpendicular surface → full flux; parallel → no flux.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Φ1 = BAcos0° = BA, Φ2 = BAcos90° = 0
Ratio = 1 : 0
Perpendicular surface → full flux; parallel → no flux. -
Question 37 of 180
37. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe amount of protein present in a typical mammalian cell is approximately:
Correct
Explanation: D
In a mammalian cell, proteins constitute about 18% of the total cell mass.Incorrect
Explanation: D
In a mammalian cell, proteins constitute about 18% of the total cell mass. -
Question 38 of 180
38. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich cell structure contains the highest concentration of RNA?
Correct
Explanation: C
The nucleolus, located inside the nucleus, is the site of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) synthesis and ribosome assembly.Incorrect
Explanation: C
The nucleolus, located inside the nucleus, is the site of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) synthesis and ribosome assembly. -
Question 39 of 180
39. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich statement best describes the function of tRNA in protein synthesis?
Correct
Explanation: C
tRNA transports specific amino acids to the ribosome for protein assembly.Incorrect
Explanation: C
tRNA transports specific amino acids to the ribosome for protein assembly. -
Question 40 of 180
40. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyAdding more substrate to an ongoing enzymatic reaction no longer increases the reaction rate, which term best define the condition?
Correct
Explanation: B
When an enzyme-catalyzed reaction reaches a point where all active sites of the enzyme molecules are occupied, adding more substrate does not increase the reaction rate. This condition is known as enzyme saturation.Incorrect
Explanation: B
When an enzyme-catalyzed reaction reaches a point where all active sites of the enzyme molecules are occupied, adding more substrate does not increase the reaction rate. This condition is known as enzyme saturation. -
Question 41 of 180
41. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyIn which phase of respiration is ATP consumed but not generated?
Correct
Explanation: D
In glycolysis, the energy investment phase uses ATP to activate glucose before energy is produced.Incorrect
Explanation: D
In glycolysis, the energy investment phase uses ATP to activate glucose before energy is produced. -
Question 42 of 180
42. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich characteristic commonly found in living organisms is present in viruses?
Correct
Explanation: A
Viruses always have a genome (DNA or RNA) enclosed in a protein coat. But they lack cellular machinery and enzymes for metabolism, don’t show response to stimuli on their own, and outside a host they’re inert—so among the options, only “contain genome” fits.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Viruses always have a genome (DNA or RNA) enclosed in a protein coat. But they lack cellular machinery and enzymes for metabolism, don’t show response to stimuli on their own, and outside a host they’re inert—so among the options, only “contain genome” fits. -
Question 43 of 180
43. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhere is the sinoatrial (SA) node located in the heart?
Correct
Explanation: A
The SA node, the heart’s natural pacemaker, is located in the upper right atrium.Incorrect
Explanation: A
The SA node, the heart’s natural pacemaker, is located in the upper right atrium. -
Question 44 of 180
44. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyDuring the process of swallowing, which stage is under voluntary control?
Correct
Explanation: A
Swallowing occurs in three stages:
Oral stage – This is the voluntary phase where food is chewed and pushed by the tongue into the oropharynx.
Pharyngeal stage – Involuntary; involves reflex actions that move the bolus through the pharynx.
Oesophageal stage – Involuntary; the bolus is moved down the esophagus toward the stomach via peristalsis.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Swallowing occurs in three stages:
Oral stage – This is the voluntary phase where food is chewed and pushed by the tongue into the oropharynx.
Pharyngeal stage – Involuntary; involves reflex actions that move the bolus through the pharynx.
Oesophageal stage – Involuntary; the bolus is moved down the esophagus toward the stomach via peristalsis. -
Question 45 of 180
45. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe flavin present in FAD (flavin adenine dinucleotide) is derived from which substance?
Correct
Explanation: C
KP textbook (For your information)
FAD is a coenzyme composed of riboflavin (vitamin B2) linked to adenine dinucleotide. The flavin part of FAD comes directly from riboflavin.Incorrect
Explanation: C
KP textbook (For your information)
FAD is a coenzyme composed of riboflavin (vitamin B2) linked to adenine dinucleotide. The flavin part of FAD comes directly from riboflavin. -
Question 46 of 180
46. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich of the following is used to stimulate the body’s immune system to produce antibodies?
Correct
Explanation: C
Vaccines contain antigens, which are weakened or inactive forms of pathogens (or their parts). These stimulate the immune system to produce antibodies without causing the actual disease.
Antibiotics → kill or inhibit bacteria, not stimulate immunity.
Hormones → regulate body functions, not immune response.
Enzymes → speed up chemical reactions, not related to antibody production.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Vaccines contain antigens, which are weakened or inactive forms of pathogens (or their parts). These stimulate the immune system to produce antibodies without causing the actual disease.
Antibiotics → kill or inhibit bacteria, not stimulate immunity.
Hormones → regulate body functions, not immune response.
Enzymes → speed up chemical reactions, not related to antibody production. -
Question 47 of 180
47. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyIn anatomical position, the trachea lies ________ to the oesophagus.
Correct
Explanation: B
In the neck and superior mediastinum, the trachea is anterior (ventral) to the oesophagus, which lies posterior (dorsal).Incorrect
Explanation: B
In the neck and superior mediastinum, the trachea is anterior (ventral) to the oesophagus, which lies posterior (dorsal). -
Question 48 of 180
48. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich part of the nephron is responsible for ultrafiltration of blood?
Correct
Explanation: D
It takes place at the renal corpuscle, which is made up of two main parts:
Glomerulus – A network of tiny capillaries that receives blood from the afferent arteriole.
Bowman’s capsule – A cup-like sac that surrounds the glomerulus and collects the filtered fluid (called filtrate).Incorrect
Explanation: D
It takes place at the renal corpuscle, which is made up of two main parts:
Glomerulus – A network of tiny capillaries that receives blood from the afferent arteriole.
Bowman’s capsule – A cup-like sac that surrounds the glomerulus and collects the filtered fluid (called filtrate). -
Question 49 of 180
49. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhat happens to the I-band during muscle contraction?
Correct
Explanation: D
During contraction, the I-band shortens as actin and myosin filaments slide over each other.Incorrect
Explanation: D
During contraction, the I-band shortens as actin and myosin filaments slide over each other. -
Question 50 of 180
50. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologySpeed of nerve impulse conduction along an axon depends on:
Correct
Explanation: D
Larger diameter, myelination, and shorter length can increase impulse velocity.Incorrect
Explanation: D
Larger diameter, myelination, and shorter length can increase impulse velocity. -
Question 51 of 180
51. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhat structure in the male reproductive system is the actual site of sperm production?
Correct
Explanation: D
Sperm are produced in the seminiferous tubules of the testes under the influence of hormones like FSH and testosterone.Incorrect
Explanation: D
Sperm are produced in the seminiferous tubules of the testes under the influence of hormones like FSH and testosterone. -
Question 52 of 180
52. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyIn incomplete dominance, what phenotype is observed in the F2 generation?
Correct
Explanation: B
Incomplete dominance results in a blend of both alleles, leading to an intermediate phenotype, such as pink flowers from red and white parents.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Incomplete dominance results in a blend of both alleles, leading to an intermediate phenotype, such as pink flowers from red and white parents. -
Question 53 of 180
53. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhat is the function of DNA/RNA probes in disease diagnosis?
Correct
Explanation: C
DNA/RNA probes are short, labeled nucleic acid sequences that are complementary to a specific DNA or RNA sequence of a pathogen or a mutation. When these probes hybridize (bind) with their target sequences, they help detect the presence of:Incorrect
Explanation: C
DNA/RNA probes are short, labeled nucleic acid sequences that are complementary to a specific DNA or RNA sequence of a pathogen or a mutation. When these probes hybridize (bind) with their target sequences, they help detect the presence of: -
Question 54 of 180
54. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich idea is central to Lamarck’s theory of evolution?
Correct
Explanation: B
Lamarck suggested that traits change based on use, and these changes are inherited.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Lamarck suggested that traits change based on use, and these changes are inherited. -
Question 55 of 180
55. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyIf human somatic cells contain 46 chromosomes, how many chromosome sets are present in human germ cells?
Correct
Explanation: A
Somatic cells (body cells) in humans are diploid (2n), meaning they have 2 sets of chromosomes — a total of 46 chromosomes (23 pairs).
Germ cells (sperm and egg) are haploid (n) — they have only 1 set of chromosomes, totaling 23 chromosomes.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Somatic cells (body cells) in humans are diploid (2n), meaning they have 2 sets of chromosomes — a total of 46 chromosomes (23 pairs).
Germ cells (sperm and egg) are haploid (n) — they have only 1 set of chromosomes, totaling 23 chromosomes. -
Question 56 of 180
56. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich structural carbohydrate contains nitrogen in its chemical makeup?
Correct
Explanation: A
Chitin is a nitrogen-containing polysaccharide made of modified glucose molecules.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Chitin is a nitrogen-containing polysaccharide made of modified glucose molecules. -
Question 57 of 180
57. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe coenzyme NAD+ is structurally composed of:
Correct
Explanation: C
NAD+ (Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide) is a coenzyme that functions in oxidation–reduction (redox) reactions.
It contains a vitamin-derived part — nicotinamide, which comes from vitamin B3 (niacin).
Structurally, it is made up of two nucleotides joined through their phosphate groups — one containing adenine and the other nicotinamide.
Hence, NAD+ includes both a vitamin-derived component and a nucleotide structure.Incorrect
Explanation: C
NAD+ (Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide) is a coenzyme that functions in oxidation–reduction (redox) reactions.
It contains a vitamin-derived part — nicotinamide, which comes from vitamin B3 (niacin).
Structurally, it is made up of two nucleotides joined through their phosphate groups — one containing adenine and the other nicotinamide.
Hence, NAD+ includes both a vitamin-derived component and a nucleotide structure. -
Question 58 of 180
58. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhat are the products of two full turns of the Krebs cycle?
A. GTP + 3 NADH2 + 2 FADH2
B. GTP + 3 NADPH + 2 FADH2
C. GTP + 6 NADH2 + 1 FADH2
D. None of theseCorrect
Explanation: D
Two turns yield 2 GTP, 6 NADH, and 2 FADH2. None of the options exactly match.Incorrect
Explanation: D
Two turns yield 2 GTP, 6 NADH, and 2 FADH2. None of the options exactly match. -
Question 59 of 180
59. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyHIV primarily targets which of the following in the human immune system?
A. CD4 site of T cells
B. B cells
C. White blood cells
D. None of theseCorrect
Explanation: A
HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus) primarily attacks the CD4+ T cells, also known as helper T cells.Incorrect
Explanation: A
HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus) primarily attacks the CD4+ T cells, also known as helper T cells. -
Question 60 of 180
60. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich type of stomach cells secrete intrinsic factor?
Correct
Explanation: B
Intrinsic factor is a glycoprotein secreted by the parietal cells in the stomach lining. Its main function is to bind with vitamin B₁₂ and facilitate its absorption in the ileum of the small intestine.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Intrinsic factor is a glycoprotein secreted by the parietal cells in the stomach lining. Its main function is to bind with vitamin B₁₂ and facilitate its absorption in the ileum of the small intestine. -
Question 61 of 180
61. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhat is the main function of lymph nodes in the body?
Correct
Explanation: C
Lymph nodes are small, bean-shaped structures in the lymphatic system that filter lymph (a fluid containing white blood cells) and trap pathogens, such as bacteria and viruses. They also contain lymphocytes that help fight infections.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Lymph nodes are small, bean-shaped structures in the lymphatic system that filter lymph (a fluid containing white blood cells) and trap pathogens, such as bacteria and viruses. They also contain lymphocytes that help fight infections. -
Question 62 of 180
62. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe approximate average lung capacity of an adult human is:
Correct
Explanation: C
Lung capacity varies with sex, height, and fitness, but a commonly cited textbook average is ≈5 liters for adults.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Lung capacity varies with sex, height, and fitness, but a commonly cited textbook average is ≈5 liters for adults. -
Question 63 of 180
63. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhat organ in the body maintains the acid-base (pH) balance?
Correct
Explanation: C
Kidneys help maintain blood pH by excreting hydrogen ions and reabsorbing bicarbonate.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Kidneys help maintain blood pH by excreting hydrogen ions and reabsorbing bicarbonate. -
Question 64 of 180
64. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich of these is not true during muscle contraction?
Correct
Explanation: A
A-band stays the same; it’s the region with thick filaments. Other bands and zones adjust during contraction.Incorrect
Explanation: A
A-band stays the same; it’s the region with thick filaments. Other bands and zones adjust during contraction. -
Question 65 of 180
65. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhat happens during repolarization in a neuron?
Correct
Explanation: B
Repolarization is the return of the membrane potential to its resting state after depolarization, mainly through potassium ion outflow. During repolarization, K+ ions move out of the neuron through voltage-gated K+ channels, making the inside negative again and bringing it back toward the resting level. (Na+ channels are inactivated; sometimes it briefly goes below rest = hyperpolarization).Incorrect
Explanation: B
Repolarization is the return of the membrane potential to its resting state after depolarization, mainly through potassium ion outflow. During repolarization, K+ ions move out of the neuron through voltage-gated K+ channels, making the inside negative again and bringing it back toward the resting level. (Na+ channels are inactivated; sometimes it briefly goes below rest = hyperpolarization). -
Question 66 of 180
66. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe hormone that stimulates Leydig cells to produce testosterone is:
Correct
Explanation: D
LH stimulates Leydig cells in the testes to produce testosterone, crucial for male reproductive development.Incorrect
Explanation: D
LH stimulates Leydig cells in the testes to produce testosterone, crucial for male reproductive development. -
Question 67 of 180
67. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyMendel’s law of segregation explains how:
Correct
Explanation: C
According to this law, alleles for a trait separate during the formation of gametes (meiosis), so each gamete gets only one alleleIncorrect
Explanation: C
According to this law, alleles for a trait separate during the formation of gametes (meiosis), so each gamete gets only one allele -
Question 68 of 180
68. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhat is the main purpose of using recombinant DNA technology in the production of vaccines?
Correct
Explanation: B
Recombinant DNA technology involves inserting a gene that encodes a specific antigen into another organism. This organism then produces the antigen, which is purified and used in the vaccine.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Recombinant DNA technology involves inserting a gene that encodes a specific antigen into another organism. This organism then produces the antigen, which is purified and used in the vaccine. -
Question 69 of 180
69. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyAccording to Darwin’s theory of evolution, what are variations called that improve an organism’s chances of survival?
Correct
Explanation: B
According to Darwin’s theory of natural selection, variations that improve an organism’s chances of survival and reproduction are called useful (or favorable) variations. These variations help organisms adapt better to their environment and are passed on to future generations.
A. Harmful variations → decrease survival chances.
C. Artificial variations → result from human-controlled breeding (artificial selection).
D. Inherited mutations → are changes in DNA, but not all mutations are beneficial.Incorrect
Explanation: B
According to Darwin’s theory of natural selection, variations that improve an organism’s chances of survival and reproduction are called useful (or favorable) variations. These variations help organisms adapt better to their environment and are passed on to future generations.
A. Harmful variations → decrease survival chances.
C. Artificial variations → result from human-controlled breeding (artificial selection).
D. Inherited mutations → are changes in DNA, but not all mutations are beneficial. -
Question 70 of 180
70. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich of the following best describes the function of the nucleolus?
Correct
Explanation: C
The nucleolus is responsible for synthesizing and assembling ribosomal RNA (rRNA).Incorrect
Explanation: C
The nucleolus is responsible for synthesizing and assembling ribosomal RNA (rRNA). -
Question 71 of 180
71. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhat is the function of a phospholipid in a cell?
Correct
Explanation: C
Phospholipids have both water-attracting and water-repelling parts, making them ideal for forming cell membranes.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Phospholipids have both water-attracting and water-repelling parts, making them ideal for forming cell membranes. -
Question 72 of 180
72. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhat alters the shape of enzymes and makes them functional:
Correct
Explanation: A
A cofactor—either a metal ion or an organic coenzyme—binds to an apoenzyme, inducing the proper conformation of the active site and forming the holoenzyme. “Proteins” (option C) is too vague; most enzymes are already proteins and do not become active merely by adding generic protein.Incorrect
Explanation: A
A cofactor—either a metal ion or an organic coenzyme—binds to an apoenzyme, inducing the proper conformation of the active site and forming the holoenzyme. “Proteins” (option C) is too vague; most enzymes are already proteins and do not become active merely by adding generic protein. -
Question 73 of 180
73. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyViruses are incapable of which function?
Correct
Explanation: B
Viruses lack cellular metabolism—so they do not excrete waste. They can crystallize (used in early structural studies), infect bacteria (bacteriophages), and mutate readily, especially RNA viruses.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Viruses lack cellular metabolism—so they do not excrete waste. They can crystallize (used in early structural studies), infect bacteria (bacteriophages), and mutate readily, especially RNA viruses. -
Question 74 of 180
74. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich organ in the lymphatic system is the largest lymphoid organ?
Correct
Explanation: B
The spleen filters blood, stores white blood cells, and is the largest lymphoid organ.Incorrect
Explanation: B
The spleen filters blood, stores white blood cells, and is the largest lymphoid organ. -
Question 75 of 180
75. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyAfter a big, carb-rich meal (rice + sweet drink), a student’s blood glucose rises. Which hormone is released to lower the blood glucose by helping body cells take up glucose and store it?
Correct
Explanation: A
Insulin (from pancreatic β-cells) lowers blood glucose by increasing glucose uptake in muscles and fat and promoting glycogen formation in the liver. Glucagon does the opposite (raises glucose), estrogen is a sex hormone, and ADH controls water balance.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Insulin (from pancreatic β-cells) lowers blood glucose by increasing glucose uptake in muscles and fat and promoting glycogen formation in the liver. Glucagon does the opposite (raises glucose), estrogen is a sex hormone, and ADH controls water balance. -
Question 76 of 180
76. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich white blood cell is the most abundant in the human body?
Correct
Explanation: B
Neutrophils are the most numerous type of WBC and are the first responders during infection.
“This is from non-specific defence mechanism which is not included in syllabus but this is a general information that all students should know and it can come in MDCAT. If we look at the previous years KMU MDCAT, They had included these kind of general MCQS”.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Neutrophils are the most numerous type of WBC and are the first responders during infection.
“This is from non-specific defence mechanism which is not included in syllabus but this is a general information that all students should know and it can come in MDCAT. If we look at the previous years KMU MDCAT, They had included these kind of general MCQS”. -
Question 77 of 180
77. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe chloride shift (Hamburger phenomenon) in systemic capillaries refers to:
A. Entry of Cl– into red blood cells as HCO3– leaves the RBC to maintain electroneutrality
B. Exit of Cl– from red blood cells as HCO3– enters the plasma
C. Influx of Na+ into red blood cells to balance H+ produced by carbonic acid
D. Efflux of K+ from red blood cells when CO2 loads into bloodCorrect
Explanation: A
In tissues, CO2 enters RBCs → forms H2CO3 → dissociates to H+ + HCO3–. HCO3– exits the RBC and enters plasma, and Cl– moves inside RBC (chloride shift) to preserve charge balance. In the lungs, the reverse chloride shift occurs.Incorrect
Explanation: A
In tissues, CO2 enters RBCs → forms H2CO3 → dissociates to H+ + HCO3–. HCO3– exits the RBC and enters plasma, and Cl– moves inside RBC (chloride shift) to preserve charge balance. In the lungs, the reverse chloride shift occurs. -
Question 78 of 180
78. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyRoughly what percentage of the cardiac output is received by the kidneys at rest?
Correct
Explanation: C
At rest, the kidneys receive about 20–25% of cardiac output (~1.0–1.2 L/min from ~5 L/min CO). This high flow supports filtration rather than high metabolic demand.Incorrect
Explanation: C
At rest, the kidneys receive about 20–25% of cardiac output (~1.0–1.2 L/min from ~5 L/min CO). This high flow supports filtration rather than high metabolic demand. -
Question 79 of 180
79. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich muscle type is found in internal organs and functions involuntarily?
Correct
Explanation: C
Smooth muscles are involuntary and are found in walls of internal organs like the stomach and intestines.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Smooth muscles are involuntary and are found in walls of internal organs like the stomach and intestines. -
Question 80 of 180
80. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhat term refers to the gap between two communicating neurons?
Correct
Explanation: D
A synapse is the small gap between two neurons where neurotransmitters are exchanged.Incorrect
Explanation: D
A synapse is the small gap between two neurons where neurotransmitters are exchanged. -
Question 81 of 180
81. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich component of semen helps promote sperm transport in the female reproductive tract?
Correct
Explanation: B
Seminal prostaglandins stimulate uterine/oviduct contractions and thin cervical mucus, aiding sperm movement. Androgens/testosterone are systemic hormones, and oxytocin is a posterior pituitary hormone—not a semen component.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Seminal prostaglandins stimulate uterine/oviduct contractions and thin cervical mucus, aiding sperm movement. Androgens/testosterone are systemic hormones, and oxytocin is a posterior pituitary hormone—not a semen component. -
Question 82 of 180
82. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhat type of genetic inheritance is passed down through the Y chromosome only?
Correct
Explanation: B
Holandric traits are those carried on the Y chromosome and passed only from father to son.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Holandric traits are those carried on the Y chromosome and passed only from father to son. -
Question 83 of 180
83. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich part of a cell makes lipids and also helps detoxify drugs?
Correct
Explanation: C
Smooth er makes lipids and helps remove harmful substances.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Smooth er makes lipids and helps remove harmful substances. -
Question 84 of 180
84. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich class of lipids lacks fatty acids in its structure?
Correct
Explanation: D
Steroids and terpenoids do not contain fatty acid chains, unlike triglycerides or phospholipids.Incorrect
Explanation: D
Steroids and terpenoids do not contain fatty acid chains, unlike triglycerides or phospholipids. -
Question 85 of 180
85. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe optimum pH for the activity of pancreatic lipase is approximately:
Correct
Explanation: D
Pancreatic lipase functions best in a slightly alkaline environment (around pH 8).Incorrect
Explanation: D
Pancreatic lipase functions best in a slightly alkaline environment (around pH 8). -
Question 86 of 180
86. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich of the following defines cellular respiration most accurately?
Correct
Explanation: C
Cellular respiration is the process of breaking down glucose in the presence of oxygen to generate ATP, the energy currency of cells.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Cellular respiration is the process of breaking down glucose in the presence of oxygen to generate ATP, the energy currency of cells. -
Question 87 of 180
87. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe genetic material of HIV consists of:
Correct
Explanation: C
HIV is a retrovirus with a positive-sense single-stranded RNA genome (two copies). Inside infected cells, reverse transcriptase makes cDNA from this RNA, but the virion itself carries RNA, not DNA.Incorrect
Explanation: C
HIV is a retrovirus with a positive-sense single-stranded RNA genome (two copies). Inside infected cells, reverse transcriptase makes cDNA from this RNA, but the virion itself carries RNA, not DNA. -
Question 88 of 180
88. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich digestive enzyme is released from its gland already catalytically active (i.e., not as a zymogen)?
Correct
Explanation: A
Pancreatic amylase is secreted in active form. In contrast, proteases are secreted as inactive precursors (trypsinogen, pepsinogen, chymotrypsinogen) to prevent autodigestion.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Pancreatic amylase is secreted in active form. In contrast, proteases are secreted as inactive precursors (trypsinogen, pepsinogen, chymotrypsinogen) to prevent autodigestion. -
Question 89 of 180
89. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich option illustrates passive immunity?
Correct
Explanation: A
Passive immunity = receiving pre-formed antibodies (natural: placenta IgG, breast-milk IgA; artificial: antibody injections). Prior infection and vaccines produce active immunity by stimulating the host’s own immune response.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Passive immunity = receiving pre-formed antibodies (natural: placenta IgG, breast-milk IgA; artificial: antibody injections). Prior infection and vaccines produce active immunity by stimulating the host’s own immune response. -
Question 90 of 180
90. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyApproximately what percentage of total CO2 in venous blood is transported simply dissolved in plasma?
Correct
Explanation: A
About ~7% of CO2 is carried physically dissolved in plasma. Roughly ~23% binds to hemoglobin as carbamino compounds, and about ~70% is transported as bicarbonate (HCO3–).Incorrect
Explanation: A
About ~7% of CO2 is carried physically dissolved in plasma. Roughly ~23% binds to hemoglobin as carbamino compounds, and about ~70% is transported as bicarbonate (HCO3–). -
Question 91 of 180
91. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich type of nephron is primarily responsible for producing concentrated urine?
Correct
Explanation: C
W Juxtamedullary nephrons have long loops of Henle that extend deep into the medulla and are accompanied by vasa recta, establishing the medullary osmotic gradient via the countercurrent multiplier/exchanger—key for urine concentration. Cortical/subcapsular nephrons have short loops and contribute less to concentration.Incorrect
Explanation: C
W Juxtamedullary nephrons have long loops of Henle that extend deep into the medulla and are accompanied by vasa recta, establishing the medullary osmotic gradient via the countercurrent multiplier/exchanger—key for urine concentration. Cortical/subcapsular nephrons have short loops and contribute less to concentration. -
Question 92 of 180
92. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe cells that reside within the lacunae of mature bone are called:
Correct
Explanation: C
Osteocytes are mature bone cells trapped in lacunae of the mineralized matrix and connect via canaliculi. Chondrocytes occupy lacunae in cartilage (not bone). Osteoblasts line bone surfaces and form new bone, while osteoclasts resorb bone and sit in Howship’s lacunae (resorption bays), not the matrix lacunae that house osteocytes.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Osteocytes are mature bone cells trapped in lacunae of the mineralized matrix and connect via canaliculi. Chondrocytes occupy lacunae in cartilage (not bone). Osteoblasts line bone surfaces and form new bone, while osteoclasts resorb bone and sit in Howship’s lacunae (resorption bays), not the matrix lacunae that house osteocytes. -
Question 93 of 180
93. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich of the following is not regulated by the autonomic nervous system (ANS)?
Correct
Explanation: D
The ANS governs involuntary functions—cardiac modulation, smooth muscle tone, and glandular secretion. Conscious thought and emotions arise from cortical/limbic activity, not direct ANS control (though emotions can trigger ANS responses).Incorrect
Explanation: D
The ANS governs involuntary functions—cardiac modulation, smooth muscle tone, and glandular secretion. Conscious thought and emotions arise from cortical/limbic activity, not direct ANS control (though emotions can trigger ANS responses). -
Question 94 of 180
94. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyAt the start of the menstrual phase (Day 1), which hormones are at their lowest levels?
Correct
Explanation: C
Regression of the corpus luteum just before menses causes a sharp drop in progesterone and estrogen—their lowest point occurs at the onset of menstruation. This fall releases pituitary negative feedback, so FSH (and then LH) begin to rise in the early follicular phase.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Regression of the corpus luteum just before menses causes a sharp drop in progesterone and estrogen—their lowest point occurs at the onset of menstruation. This fall releases pituitary negative feedback, so FSH (and then LH) begin to rise in the early follicular phase. -
Question 95 of 180
95. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhat offspring ratio results from a cross between Rr (round) and rr (wrinkled) pea plants?
Correct
Explanation: C
A monohybrid cross of Rr × rr produces 50% Rr (round) and 50% rr (wrinkled) — a 1:1 ratio.Incorrect
Explanation: C
A monohybrid cross of Rr × rr produces 50% Rr (round) and 50% rr (wrinkled) — a 1:1 ratio. -
Question 96 of 180
96. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyHow many pairs of chromosomes are found in a chimpanzee?
Correct
Explanation: C
Chimpanzees have a total of 48 chromosomes, arranged in 24 pairs. Humans, by comparison, have 46 chromosomes (23 pairs).Incorrect
Explanation: C
Chimpanzees have a total of 48 chromosomes, arranged in 24 pairs. Humans, by comparison, have 46 chromosomes (23 pairs). -
Question 97 of 180
97. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyUpon hydrolysis, one triglyceride yields how many glycerol molecules?
Correct
Explanation: A
A triglyceride consists of three fatty acids attached to a single glycerol backbone.Incorrect
Explanation: A
A triglyceride consists of three fatty acids attached to a single glycerol backbone. -
Question 98 of 180
98. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyPoisons such as cyanide act as which type of enzyme inhibitor?
Correct
Explanation: A
Cyanide binds irreversibly to the iron-containing active site of cytochrome oxidase in the mitochondrial electron transport chain. This prevents oxygen from accepting electrons, blocking cellular respiration. Because cyanide binds to a site other than the substrate’s active site (and alters enzyme function even when substrate is present), it acts as a non-competitive inhibitor, not a competitive one.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Cyanide binds irreversibly to the iron-containing active site of cytochrome oxidase in the mitochondrial electron transport chain. This prevents oxygen from accepting electrons, blocking cellular respiration. Because cyanide binds to a site other than the substrate’s active site (and alters enzyme function even when substrate is present), it acts as a non-competitive inhibitor, not a competitive one. -
Question 99 of 180
99. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyComplete oxidation of one molecule of palmitic acid (a 16-carbon fatty acid) yields approximately how many molecules of ATP?
Correct
Explanation: D
KP textbook
1 Palmitic acid give eight acetyl grps and generate 129 atp molecules.Incorrect
Explanation: D
KP textbook
1 Palmitic acid give eight acetyl grps and generate 129 atp molecules. -
Question 100 of 180
100. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe protein shell that encloses a viral genome is called:
Correct
Explanation: A
The capsid is the protective protein coat of a virus, built from capsomere subunits. A phage is a bacteriophage (a virus that infects bacteria), a viroid is a small infectious RNA without a protein coat, and “DNA sheath” isn’t a standard term for viral structure.Incorrect
Explanation: A
The capsid is the protective protein coat of a virus, built from capsomere subunits. A phage is a bacteriophage (a virus that infects bacteria), a viroid is a small infectious RNA without a protein coat, and “DNA sheath” isn’t a standard term for viral structure. -
Question 101 of 180
101. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyArteries differ from veins because they:
Correct
Explanation: B
Arteries carry blood away from the heart and experience high pressure from heart contractions. To withstand this pressure, they have thicker, more muscular and elastic walls.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Arteries carry blood away from the heart and experience high pressure from heart contractions. To withstand this pressure, they have thicker, more muscular and elastic walls. -
Question 102 of 180
102. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich of the following conditions can lead to the formation of kidney stones (renal calculi)?
Correct
Explanation: D
Kidney stones may form due to excess excretion or high blood levels of certain substances.
• Hypercalcemia → leads to calcium stones (e.g., calcium oxalate).
• Hyperoxaluria → promotes oxalate crystal formation.
• Hyperuricemia → causes uric acid stones.
Thus, all listed conditions can contribute to kidney stone formation.Incorrect
Explanation: D
Kidney stones may form due to excess excretion or high blood levels of certain substances.
• Hypercalcemia → leads to calcium stones (e.g., calcium oxalate).
• Hyperoxaluria → promotes oxalate crystal formation.
• Hyperuricemia → causes uric acid stones.
Thus, all listed conditions can contribute to kidney stone formation. -
Question 103 of 180
103. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyDuring recovery (relaxation) after a skeletal muscle contraction, what happens to intracellular calcium?
Correct
Explanation: C
Relaxation requires removal of cytosolic Ca2+. SERCA (Ca2+-ATPase) actively pumps Ca2+ into the SR, Ca²⁺ dissociates from troponin C, tropomyosin re-covers actin’s binding sites, and cross-bridges stop cycling. Na+/Ca2+ exchange is not the primary mechanism in skeletal muscle.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Relaxation requires removal of cytosolic Ca2+. SERCA (Ca2+-ATPase) actively pumps Ca2+ into the SR, Ca²⁺ dissociates from troponin C, tropomyosin re-covers actin’s binding sites, and cross-bridges stop cycling. Na+/Ca2+ exchange is not the primary mechanism in skeletal muscle. -
Question 104 of 180
104. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe active membrane potential (during the action potential) of a neuron reaches approximately:
Correct
Explanation: C
When a neuron is excited, depolarization occurs as Na+ ions rush into the cell, causing the membrane potential to reverse from negative to positive. The peak (active) membrane potential during an action potential is about +50 mV, after which repolarization restores the resting potential.Incorrect
Explanation: C
When a neuron is excited, depolarization occurs as Na+ ions rush into the cell, causing the membrane potential to reverse from negative to positive. The peak (active) membrane potential during an action potential is about +50 mV, after which repolarization restores the resting potential. -
Question 105 of 180
105. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe drug of choice for treating all stages of syphilis is:
Correct
Explanation: C
Penicillin (especially benzathine penicillin G) is the treatment of choice for all stages of syphilis—primary, secondary, latent, and tertiary. It is highly effective against Treponema pallidum, the causative bacterium. In patients allergic to penicillin, alternatives like doxycycline or azithromycin may be used, but penicillin remains the gold standard therapy.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Penicillin (especially benzathine penicillin G) is the treatment of choice for all stages of syphilis—primary, secondary, latent, and tertiary. It is highly effective against Treponema pallidum, the causative bacterium. In patients allergic to penicillin, alternatives like doxycycline or azithromycin may be used, but penicillin remains the gold standard therapy. -
Question 106 of 180
106. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyGenes that are located close together on the same chromosome are called:
Correct
Explanation: B
Linked genes tend to be inherited together and are found on the same chromosome.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Linked genes tend to be inherited together and are found on the same chromosome. -
Question 107 of 180
107. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe Golgi complex (Golgi apparatus) is made up of structural units known as:
Correct
Explanation: C
The Golgi complex consists of stacks of flattened membrane-bound sacs called dictyosomes (especially in plant cells). These are responsible for modifying, packaging, and transporting proteins and lipids within the cell. Each dictyosome is composed of several cisternae, which form the functional layers of the Golgi apparatus.Incorrect
Explanation: C
The Golgi complex consists of stacks of flattened membrane-bound sacs called dictyosomes (especially in plant cells). These are responsible for modifying, packaging, and transporting proteins and lipids within the cell. Each dictyosome is composed of several cisternae, which form the functional layers of the Golgi apparatus. -
Question 108 of 180
108. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich statement about globular proteins is incorrect?
Correct
Explanation: A
Hair is rich in keratin, a fibrous (not globular) protein. Globular proteins are typically compact/spherical, made of polypeptide chains, and water-soluble (e.g., enzymes, hemoglobin, albumin).Incorrect
Explanation: A
Hair is rich in keratin, a fibrous (not globular) protein. Globular proteins are typically compact/spherical, made of polypeptide chains, and water-soluble (e.g., enzymes, hemoglobin, albumin). -
Question 109 of 180
109. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe joints found between vertebrae and between the bones of the wrist and ankle are examples of:
Correct
Explanation: C
Cartilaginous joints (amphiarthroses) allow limited movement and are connected by cartilage.
• Intervertebral joints contain fibrocartilage discs (symphysis type).
• Wrist and ankle bones have limited movement due to cartilaginous connections.
In contrast, fibrous joints are immovable (e.g., skull sutures), and synovial joints are freely movable (e.g., shoulder, knee).Incorrect
Explanation: C
Cartilaginous joints (amphiarthroses) allow limited movement and are connected by cartilage.
• Intervertebral joints contain fibrocartilage discs (symphysis type).
• Wrist and ankle bones have limited movement due to cartilaginous connections.
In contrast, fibrous joints are immovable (e.g., skull sutures), and synovial joints are freely movable (e.g., shoulder, knee). -
Question 110 of 180
110. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe pons in the brain primarily plays an important role in which of the following functions?
Correct
Explanation: D
The pons contains nuclei that help regulate the sleep–wake cycle, including the transition between wakefulness, sleep, and dreaming (REM sleep). It acts as a key relay between higher brain centers and the medulla, integrating neural signals for arousal and dreaming activity.Incorrect
Explanation: D
The pons contains nuclei that help regulate the sleep–wake cycle, including the transition between wakefulness, sleep, and dreaming (REM sleep). It acts as a key relay between higher brain centers and the medulla, integrating neural signals for arousal and dreaming activity. -
Question 111 of 180
111. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhat type of sex chromosomes are found in human males?
Correct
Explanation: A
Males have XY chromosomes, which are non-homologous and heteromorphic (differ in shape and genetic content).Incorrect
Explanation: A
Males have XY chromosomes, which are non-homologous and heteromorphic (differ in shape and genetic content). -
Question 112 of 180
112. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyAll of the following are properties of water except:
Correct
Explanation: D
Water is polar, forms extensive hydrogen bonds, and acts as a near universal solvent. Unlike most liquids, water becomes less dense when it freezes because its hydrogen-bonded crystal lattice (ice) is more open, increasing volume and lowering density—hence ice floats.Incorrect
Explanation: D
Water is polar, forms extensive hydrogen bonds, and acts as a near universal solvent. Unlike most liquids, water becomes less dense when it freezes because its hydrogen-bonded crystal lattice (ice) is more open, increasing volume and lowering density—hence ice floats. -
Question 113 of 180
113. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe majority of neurons found in the brain and spinal cord are of which structural type?
Correct
Explanation: D
Multipolar neurons—having one axon and multiple dendrites—are the most common type in the central nervous system (CNS). They allow complex integration of information. Bipolar neurons occur in sensory organs (e.g., retina, olfactory epithelium), while pseudounipolar neurons are typical of sensory ganglia in the PNS.Incorrect
Explanation: D
Multipolar neurons—having one axon and multiple dendrites—are the most common type in the central nervous system (CNS). They allow complex integration of information. Bipolar neurons occur in sensory organs (e.g., retina, olfactory epithelium), while pseudounipolar neurons are typical of sensory ganglia in the PNS. -
Question 114 of 180
114. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich organ of the female reproductive system is shaped like an inverted pear?
Correct
Explanation: C
The uterus is a hollow, muscular organ situated in the pelvic cavity. It is pear-shaped (inverted)—broad at the upper end (fundus) and narrow at the lower end (cervix). Its structure and thick muscular walls make it ideal for implantation and development of the embryo during pregnancy.Incorrect
Explanation: C
The uterus is a hollow, muscular organ situated in the pelvic cavity. It is pear-shaped (inverted)—broad at the upper end (fundus) and narrow at the lower end (cervix). Its structure and thick muscular walls make it ideal for implantation and development of the embryo during pregnancy. -
Question 115 of 180
115. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyA carrier female of an X-linked disorder has what chance of passing the mutation to her child?
Correct
Explanation: B
Each child has a 50% chance of inheriting the mutant X gene from the carrier mother.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Each child has a 50% chance of inheriting the mutant X gene from the carrier mother. -
Question 116 of 180
116. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyPyrimidines are ______________ nitrogenous bases.
Correct
Explanation: B
Pyrimidines (cytosine, thymine, uracil) have a single-ring structure. Purines (adenine, guanine) are double-ringed. Options C and D refer to chemical bonds, not ring count.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Pyrimidines (cytosine, thymine, uracil) have a single-ring structure. Purines (adenine, guanine) are double-ringed. Options C and D refer to chemical bonds, not ring count. -
Question 117 of 180
117. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhat is the principal consequence of crossing over during prophase I of meiosis?
Correct
Explanation: B
In prophase I, crossing over occurs between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes, creating recombinant chromatids. This reshuffles alleles and increases genetic diversity in gametes. Duplication occurs earlier (S phase), exchanging identical parts wouldn’t create new combinations, and exchanges between non-homologous chromosomes are aberrations, not normal meiosis.Incorrect
Explanation: B
In prophase I, crossing over occurs between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes, creating recombinant chromatids. This reshuffles alleles and increases genetic diversity in gametes. Duplication occurs earlier (S phase), exchanging identical parts wouldn’t create new combinations, and exchanges between non-homologous chromosomes are aberrations, not normal meiosis. -
Question 118 of 180
118. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryMass of one mole of sulphur in amu is:
A. 32 amu
B. 32 × Na amu
C. 32 × 1.667 × 10–27 amu
D. NoneCorrect
Explanation: B
1 atom of sulphur = 32 amu
1 mole of sulphur = 32 amu × Na.Incorrect
Explanation: B
1 atom of sulphur = 32 amu
1 mole of sulphur = 32 amu × Na. -
Question 119 of 180
119. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryPrincipal reactions of carboxylic acids:
Correct
Explanation: C
Carboxylic acids (R–COOH) have a carboxyl group (–COOH) which consists of a carbonyl (C = O) and a hydroxyl (–OH) group attached to the same carbon.
The principal reactions of carboxylic acids occur at the carboxyl carbon, which is electrophilic in nature.
However, instead of direct addition (like aldehydes/ketones), the reactions proceed through a nucleophilic acyl substitution mechanism.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Carboxylic acids (R–COOH) have a carboxyl group (–COOH) which consists of a carbonyl (C = O) and a hydroxyl (–OH) group attached to the same carbon.
The principal reactions of carboxylic acids occur at the carboxyl carbon, which is electrophilic in nature.
However, instead of direct addition (like aldehydes/ketones), the reactions proceed through a nucleophilic acyl substitution mechanism. -
Question 120 of 180
120. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryIf Zn rod is placed in copper sulphate solution:
Correct
Explanation: B
Displacement reaction
Zn(s) + CuSO4(aq) → ZnSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
Zinc is more reactive → it oxidizes to Zn2+, while Cu2+ is reduced to Cu(s) that deposits on the Zn rod.
So Zn is oxidized (not reduced) and Cu2+ is reduced (not oxidized).
When a zinc rod is placed in a copper sulphate solution, a displacement reaction occurs where zinc displaces copper, causing the blue color of the solution to fade as copper sulphate is converted to colourless zinc sulphate. Solid copper metal is deposited onto the zinc rod, and the zinc itself dissolves into the solution, forming zinc ions.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Displacement reaction
Zn(s) + CuSO4(aq) → ZnSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
Zinc is more reactive → it oxidizes to Zn2+, while Cu2+ is reduced to Cu(s) that deposits on the Zn rod.
So Zn is oxidized (not reduced) and Cu2+ is reduced (not oxidized).
When a zinc rod is placed in a copper sulphate solution, a displacement reaction occurs where zinc displaces copper, causing the blue color of the solution to fade as copper sulphate is converted to colourless zinc sulphate. Solid copper metal is deposited onto the zinc rod, and the zinc itself dissolves into the solution, forming zinc ions. -
Question 121 of 180
121. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryFirst ionization energy is greater for:
Correct
Explanation: C
Ionization energy increases along the period & group 5 has greater IE than group 6.
Thus, Nitrogen (N) has the highest first ionization energy among the options due to its extra stability of half-filled p orbitals.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Ionization energy increases along the period & group 5 has greater IE than group 6.
Thus, Nitrogen (N) has the highest first ionization energy among the options due to its extra stability of half-filled p orbitals. -
Question 122 of 180
122. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryWhich of the following statements about ceruloplasmin is correct?
Correct
Explanation: C
Ceruloplasmin, synthesized in the liver, carries 65–90% of copper in blood plasma, essential for strong bone formation and melanin synthesis. Excess copper, however, can be toxic.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Ceruloplasmin, synthesized in the liver, carries 65–90% of copper in blood plasma, essential for strong bone formation and melanin synthesis. Excess copper, however, can be toxic. -
Question 123 of 180
123. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryMix 4.0g H2 and 16.0g O2. Theoretical mass of water and leftover reactant?
A. 9.0 g H2O; 3.0 g H2 left
B. 18.0 g H2O; 2.0 g H2 left
C. 36.0 g H2O; 0 g H2 left
D. 9.0 g H2O; 7.0 g O2 leftCorrect
Explanation B
Incorrect
Explanation B

-
Question 124 of 180
124. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryStrongest acid:
A. CH3COOH
B. CH2ClCOOH
C. CHCl2COOH
D. CCl3COOHCorrect
Explanation: D
The greater the number of withdrawing groups attached to acid, greater is its acidity.
–Cl groups are strong –I (electron-withdrawing) substituents. More Cl atoms pull electron density away from the –COO⁻ in the conjugate base, stabilizing it and increasing acidity. Thus acidity increases with the number of α-chlorines:
CCl3COOH > CHCl2COOH > CH2ClCOOH > CH3COOH.Incorrect
Explanation: D
The greater the number of withdrawing groups attached to acid, greater is its acidity.
–Cl groups are strong –I (electron-withdrawing) substituents. More Cl atoms pull electron density away from the –COO⁻ in the conjugate base, stabilizing it and increasing acidity. Thus acidity increases with the number of α-chlorines:
CCl3COOH > CHCl2COOH > CH2ClCOOH > CH3COOH. -
Question 125 of 180
125. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryIodine shows its highest oxidation state in:
A. HI
B. I2
C. HIO3
D. IF7Correct
Explanation: D
Oxidation states of I in options:
HI: I = −1
I2: I = 0
HIO3: I = +5
IF7: I = +7 (maximum for iodine).Incorrect
Explanation: D
Oxidation states of I in options:
HI: I = −1
I2: I = 0
HIO3: I = +5
IF7: I = +7 (maximum for iodine). -
Question 126 of 180
126. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryIn fruit juice production, enzymes used are:
Correct
Explanation: C
In fruit juice production, the goal is to:
Break down plant cell walls (mainly composed of cellulose, hemicellulose, and pectin),
Increase juice yield, and
Clarify the juice by removing suspended particles.Incorrect
Explanation: C
In fruit juice production, the goal is to:
Break down plant cell walls (mainly composed of cellulose, hemicellulose, and pectin),
Increase juice yield, and
Clarify the juice by removing suspended particles. -
Question 127 of 180
127. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryWhich Group I metal reacts most violently with water among the following?
Correct
Explanation: D
Trend: Reactivity with water increases down the group due to decreasing ionization energy.
Order: Li < Na < K < Rb < Cs
Tip: Always remember that heavier alkali metals (like Rb and Cs) are dangerously reactive with water.Incorrect
Explanation: D
Trend: Reactivity with water increases down the group due to decreasing ionization energy.
Order: Li < Na < K < Rb < Cs
Tip: Always remember that heavier alkali metals (like Rb and Cs) are dangerously reactive with water. -
Question 128 of 180
128. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryMaximum number of particles are present in:
A. 2g of H2 gas
B. 20g of Ca
C. 34.5g of Na
D. 120g I2Correct
Explanation: C
Reasoning (particles = molecules/atoms as appropriate):
• 2 g H2 → 2/2 = 1.0 mol molecules → 1.0 NA particles
• 20g Ca → 20/40 = 0.5 mol atoms → 0.5 NA particles
• 34.5 g Na → 34.5/23 = 1.5 mol atoms → 1.5 NA particles
• 120 gl2 → 120/254 ≈ 0.47 mol molecules → ≈ 0.47NA particles
Largest number of particles corresponds to the largest moles → Option C.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Reasoning (particles = molecules/atoms as appropriate):
• 2 g H2 → 2/2 = 1.0 mol molecules → 1.0 NA particles
• 20g Ca → 20/40 = 0.5 mol atoms → 0.5 NA particles
• 34.5 g Na → 34.5/23 = 1.5 mol atoms → 1.5 NA particles
• 120 gl2 → 120/254 ≈ 0.47 mol molecules → ≈ 0.47NA particles
Largest number of particles corresponds to the largest moles → Option C. -
Question 129 of 180
129. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryAmphoteric oxide in group 2 elements is formed by:
Correct
Explanation: A
• Beryllium oxide (BeO) is amphoteric, meaning it can react with both acids and bases:
BeO + 2HCl → BeCl2 + H2O
BeO + 2NaOH + H2O → Na2 [Be(OH)4]
• Other group 2 oxides (MgO, CaO, SrO, BaO) are basic in nature and do not show amphoterism.
◈ Hence, BeO (from Beryllium) is the only amphoteric oxide in Group 2.Incorrect
Explanation: A
• Beryllium oxide (BeO) is amphoteric, meaning it can react with both acids and bases:
BeO + 2HCl → BeCl2 + H2O
BeO + 2NaOH + H2O → Na2 [Be(OH)4]
• Other group 2 oxides (MgO, CaO, SrO, BaO) are basic in nature and do not show amphoterism.
◈ Hence, BeO (from Beryllium) is the only amphoteric oxide in Group 2. -
Question 130 of 180
130. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryZinc as a catalyst enhances rate of reaction the most when in:
Correct
Explanation: C
Catalysis at a solid surface happens at active sites. Finely divided powder has the largest surface area per mass, exposing the most sites for adsorption of reactants → highest rate enhancement. Blocks or larger pieces have far fewer accessible sites.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Catalysis at a solid surface happens at active sites. Finely divided powder has the largest surface area per mass, exposing the most sites for adsorption of reactants → highest rate enhancement. Blocks or larger pieces have far fewer accessible sites. -
Question 131 of 180
131. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryWhich property of dyes prevents fading after repeated washing?
Correct
Explanation: C
Fastness (ability to withstand washing, light, and exposure) ensures permanent colouring.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Fastness (ability to withstand washing, light, and exposure) ensures permanent colouring. -
Question 132 of 180
132. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryWhich of the following is the correct configuration for Palladium (Pd, Z = 46)?
A. [Kr] 4d8 5s2
B. [Kr] 4d9 5s1
C. [Kr] 4d10 5s0
D. [Kr] 4d10 5s2Correct
Explanation: C
Palladium is an exceptional case. To gain stability, it adopts a configuration with completely filled 4d orbital and no electrons in 5s.
Text book Table Electronic Configuration of Three Series of d-block elements.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Palladium is an exceptional case. To gain stability, it adopts a configuration with completely filled 4d orbital and no electrons in 5s.
Text book Table Electronic Configuration of Three Series of d-block elements. -
Question 133 of 180
133. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryQuantum number not having an integer value:
Correct
Explanation: D
Value of spin quantum numbers is in fractions +1/2 or –1/2 not integral.
Incorrect
Explanation: D
Value of spin quantum numbers is in fractions +1/2 or –1/2 not integral.

-
Question 134 of 180
134. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryThe ion with reducing character of the following is
A. Cr+6
B. Mn+7
C. Fe+3
D. Cu+1Correct
Explanation: D
Element in its lowest oxidation state is reducing while in highest oxidation state is oxidizing

Hence, Cu+ (in +1 oxidation state) is least stable and readily loses one electron to form Cu2+, showing maximum reducing character among the given ions.
Incorrect
Explanation: D
Element in its lowest oxidation state is reducing while in highest oxidation state is oxidizing

Hence, Cu+ (in +1 oxidation state) is least stable and readily loses one electron to form Cu2+, showing maximum reducing character among the given ions.
-
Question 135 of 180
135. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryGiven the data of variation of rate with changing concentrations of A & B.

Specific rate constant of reaction equals to:
A.5
B. 4
C. 10
D. 20Correct
Explanation: C
Specific rate constant equals to rate when concentration of reactants is unity, in first relation of table both reactants have unity concentration so rate is 10 & rate constant is also 10.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Specific rate constant equals to rate when concentration of reactants is unity, in first relation of table both reactants have unity concentration so rate is 10 & rate constant is also 10. -
Question 136 of 180
136. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryWhich statement best describes the reason for high structural diversity in organic chemistry?
Correct
Explanation: C
Organic diversity is due to carbon’s ability to catenate, form multiple bonds, and bond with heteroatoms like O, N, S, and halogens.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Organic diversity is due to carbon’s ability to catenate, form multiple bonds, and bond with heteroatoms like O, N, S, and halogens. -
Question 137 of 180
137. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryElectrons are placed in orbitals of increasing energy according to:
Correct
Explanation: A
N + l rule arranges orbitals in increasing order of energyIncorrect
Explanation: A
N + l rule arranges orbitals in increasing order of energy -
Question 138 of 180
138. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryIdentify the correct IUPAC name for the compound commonly known as isobutyraldehyde.
Correct
Explanation: A
Isobutyraldehyde has the structure:
CH3–CH(CH3)–CHO
Longest chain = 3 carbons (propanal)
Methyl substituent at carbon-2
Hence, 2-Methylpropanal.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Isobutyraldehyde has the structure:
CH3–CH(CH3)–CHO
Longest chain = 3 carbons (propanal)
Methyl substituent at carbon-2
Hence, 2-Methylpropanal. -
Question 139 of 180
139. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryShape of PbCl2:
Correct
Explanation: B
PbCl2 has two bond & two lone pairs so its geometry is angular.Incorrect
Explanation: B
PbCl2 has two bond & two lone pairs so its geometry is angular. -
Question 140 of 180
140. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryType of isomerism shown by chlorobutane?
Correct
Explanation: A
Chlorobutane can show position isomerism i.e.,
1-chlorobutane → CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2Cl
2-chlorobutane → CH3–CH(Cl)–CH2–CH3.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Chlorobutane can show position isomerism i.e.,
1-chlorobutane → CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2Cl
2-chlorobutane → CH3–CH(Cl)–CH2–CH3. -
Question 141 of 180
141. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryTwo reactants A & B are involved in a reaction. Doubling A doubles the rate of reaction, & doubling B increases rate by 4 times, correct rate equation for the reaction:
A. R = K [A]2[B]1
B. R = K [A]2[B]2
C. R = K [A]1[B]2
D. R = K[A] [B]Correct
Explanation: C
Doubling A → rate doubles ⇒ first order in A.
Doubling B → rate × 4 ⇒ second order in B.
So, overall order = 1 + 2 = 3 with rate law k[A][B]2Incorrect
Explanation: C
Doubling A → rate doubles ⇒ first order in A.
Doubling B → rate × 4 ⇒ second order in B.
So, overall order = 1 + 2 = 3 with rate law k[A][B]2 -
Question 142 of 180
142. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryPlane polarized light is rotated by:
Correct
Explanation: D
Optical isomers or enantiomers rotate plane polarized light.Incorrect
Explanation: D
Optical isomers or enantiomers rotate plane polarized light. -
Question 143 of 180
143. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryMaximum bond angle is found in:
A. SO3
B. H2O
C. NH3
D. CH4Correct
Explanation: A
Lone pairs compress bond angles; planar SO3 has no lone pair on S, so it has the maximum bond angle.
SO3 is Ab3 molecule with 120° bond angle.
Rest are 4 coordinated geometries with angle 109.5° or less.
CH4 (tetrahedral) → 109.5°.
NH3 (trigonal pyramidal, one lone pair) → ~107°.
H2O (bent, two lone pairs) → ~104.5°.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Lone pairs compress bond angles; planar SO3 has no lone pair on S, so it has the maximum bond angle.
SO3 is Ab3 molecule with 120° bond angle.
Rest are 4 coordinated geometries with angle 109.5° or less.
CH4 (tetrahedral) → 109.5°.
NH3 (trigonal pyramidal, one lone pair) → ~107°.
H2O (bent, two lone pairs) → ~104.5°. -
Question 144 of 180
144. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryFree radical halogenation of alkanes proceeds most quickly when halogen used is:
Correct
Explanation: B
Order of reactivity of halogens in halogenation F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2.
F2 reacts too violently — the reaction is explosively fast (highly exothermic).
Cl2 reacts rapidly but controllably.
Br2 reacts slowly (selective).
I2 practically does not react (endothermic process).Incorrect
Explanation: B
Order of reactivity of halogens in halogenation F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2.
F2 reacts too violently — the reaction is explosively fast (highly exothermic).
Cl2 reacts rapidly but controllably.
Br2 reacts slowly (selective).
I2 practically does not react (endothermic process). -
Question 145 of 180
145. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryAddition of product to a reaction at equilibrium shifts the reaction to:
Correct
Explanation: A
When you add product to a system already at equilibrium, the system responds by opposing the change — it tries to consume the added product.
Hence, the equilibrium shifts toward the reactants side (the reverse reaction is favored) until a new equilibrium is established.Incorrect
Explanation: A
When you add product to a system already at equilibrium, the system responds by opposing the change — it tries to consume the added product.
Hence, the equilibrium shifts toward the reactants side (the reverse reaction is favored) until a new equilibrium is established. -
Question 146 of 180
146. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryAddition of halogen acids to alkene gives:
Correct
Explanation: C
Alkene + HX → R – X (alkyl halides).
When a hydrogen halide (HX; X = Cl, Br, I) adds across a C=C of an alkene, you get an alkyl halide (R–CHX–CH₂–…)—Markovnikov in the absence of peroxides (anti-Markovnikov for HBr with peroxides).Incorrect
Explanation: C
Alkene + HX → R – X (alkyl halides).
When a hydrogen halide (HX; X = Cl, Br, I) adds across a C=C of an alkene, you get an alkyl halide (R–CHX–CH₂–…)—Markovnikov in the absence of peroxides (anti-Markovnikov for HBr with peroxides). -
Question 147 of 180
147. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryWhen enthalpy of reactants is higher than the products then the reaction is:
Correct
Explanation: C
If enthalpy of reactants > enthalpy of products, the system releases heat to the surroundings.
Therefore, ΔH = Hproducts – Hreactants < 0 → exothermic reaction.
Spontaneity depends on both enthalpy (ΔH) and entropy (ΔS), not just ΔH alone — so the correct term here is exothermic, not necessarily spontaneous.Incorrect
Explanation: C
If enthalpy of reactants > enthalpy of products, the system releases heat to the surroundings.
Therefore, ΔH = Hproducts – Hreactants < 0 → exothermic reaction.
Spontaneity depends on both enthalpy (ΔH) and entropy (ΔS), not just ΔH alone — so the correct term here is exothermic, not necessarily spontaneous. -
Question 148 of 180
148. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryAcidic oxidation of cumene gives products:
Correct
Explanation: C
Acidic oxidation of cumene gives two important industrial products i.e., acetone & phenol.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Acidic oxidation of cumene gives two important industrial products i.e., acetone & phenol. -
Question 149 of 180
149. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryWhich of the following pairs correctly matches the crystal type and example?
A. Ionic – Diamond
B. Molecular – I2
C. Ionic – Graphite
D. Molecular – NaClCorrect
Explanation B
Hint: I2 = nonpolar molecules → weak London forces.
I2 and CO2 always → molecular solids.
Diamond → covalent-network (not ionic)
Graphite → covalent-network (not ionic)
NaCl → ionic (not molecular)Incorrect
Explanation B
Hint: I2 = nonpolar molecules → weak London forces.
I2 and CO2 always → molecular solids.
Diamond → covalent-network (not ionic)
Graphite → covalent-network (not ionic)
NaCl → ionic (not molecular) -
Question 150 of 180
150. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryOzonolysis of propene gives the products:
Correct
Explanation: D
Propene cleaves at double bond to give formaldehyde + acetaldehyde on ozonolysis.
CH3 – CH = CH2 → [O3] [reductive workup] HCHO (formaldehyde) + CH3CHO (acetaldehyde).Incorrect
Explanation: D
Propene cleaves at double bond to give formaldehyde + acetaldehyde on ozonolysis.
CH3 – CH = CH2 → [O3] [reductive workup] HCHO (formaldehyde) + CH3CHO (acetaldehyde). -
Question 151 of 180
151. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryIf activation energy of forward reaction is 20KJ/mol which is half that of reverse reaction activation energy, then the heat of reaction is:
Correct
Explanation: C
• Ea (forward) = 20 kJ/mol
• Ea (forward) = 1/2 Ea (reverse)
So,
Ea (reverse) = 2 × 20 = 40 kJ/mol
Relation between activation energies and enthalpy change:
ΔH = Ea (forward) – Ea (reverse)
Substitute the values:
ΔH = 20 – 40 = –20 kJ/mol
Interpretation:
• ΔH = – 20 kJ/mol → Exothermic reaction
• The magnitude of the heat of reaction = 20 kJ/mol.Incorrect
Explanation: C
• Ea (forward) = 20 kJ/mol
• Ea (forward) = 1/2 Ea (reverse)
So,
Ea (reverse) = 2 × 20 = 40 kJ/mol
Relation between activation energies and enthalpy change:
ΔH = Ea (forward) – Ea (reverse)
Substitute the values:
ΔH = 20 – 40 = –20 kJ/mol
Interpretation:
• ΔH = – 20 kJ/mol → Exothermic reaction
• The magnitude of the heat of reaction = 20 kJ/mol. -
Question 152 of 180
152. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryAcetaldehyde is produced by addition of which of the given reagents to ethyne?
A. H2SO4 + CrO3
B. HgSO4 + H2SO4 + H2O
C. HX + CH3OH
D. X2 + CCl4Correct
Explanation: B
Incorrect
Explanation: B

-
Question 153 of 180
153. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryAldehydes are strong reducing agents. In a reaction with Fehling’s solution they reduces:
A. Cu+2 ions
B. Ag+ ion
C. Na+ ion
D. Fe+2 ionCorrect
Explanation: A
In Fehling’s solution (alkaline Cu²⁺–tartrate complex), an aldehyde is oxidized to a carboxylate, while Cu²⁺ is reduced to Cu⁺ as brick-red Cu₂O(s) precipitates:
R – CHO + 2Cu2+ + 5OH– → R – COO– + Cu2O(s) + 3H2O
Ag+ is reduced in Tollens’ test, not Fehling’s.
Na+ is not reduced under these conditions.
Fe2+ isn’t the oxidant in Fehling’s solution.
So, Fehling’s test specifically involves reduction of Cu2+ → Cu.Incorrect
Explanation: A
In Fehling’s solution (alkaline Cu²⁺–tartrate complex), an aldehyde is oxidized to a carboxylate, while Cu²⁺ is reduced to Cu⁺ as brick-red Cu₂O(s) precipitates:
R – CHO + 2Cu2+ + 5OH– → R – COO– + Cu2O(s) + 3H2O
Ag+ is reduced in Tollens’ test, not Fehling’s.
Na+ is not reduced under these conditions.
Fe2+ isn’t the oxidant in Fehling’s solution.
So, Fehling’s test specifically involves reduction of Cu2+ → Cu. -
Question 154 of 180
154. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryOrder of acidity of alcohols:
A. 1° > 2° > 3°
B. 3° > 2° > 1°
C. 2° > 3° > 1°
D. 2° > 1° > 3°Correct
Explanation: A
Basic Concept of Acidity in Alcohols:
Alcohols are weak acids, and their acidity depends on the stability of the alkoxide ion (RO–) formed after losing a proton (H+).
More stable the alkoxide ion → more acidic the alcohol.
Factors Affecting Acidity:
Inductive Effect:
Electron-donating groups (like alkyl groups) destabilize the alkoxide ion by increasing electron density on the oxygen.
Hence, more alkyl groups = less acidic.
Order of Alcohols:
1° Alcohol: One alkyl group (least electron-donating)
2° Alcohol: Two alkyl groups
3° Alcohol: Three alkyl groups (most electron-donating)
Conclusion:
As the number of alkyl groups increases, acidity decreases due to increased destabilization of the conjugate base (alkoxide).
So, the correct acidity order is:
1° > 2° > 3°.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Basic Concept of Acidity in Alcohols:
Alcohols are weak acids, and their acidity depends on the stability of the alkoxide ion (RO–) formed after losing a proton (H+).
More stable the alkoxide ion → more acidic the alcohol.
Factors Affecting Acidity:
Inductive Effect:
Electron-donating groups (like alkyl groups) destabilize the alkoxide ion by increasing electron density on the oxygen.
Hence, more alkyl groups = less acidic.
Order of Alcohols:
1° Alcohol: One alkyl group (least electron-donating)
2° Alcohol: Two alkyl groups
3° Alcohol: Three alkyl groups (most electron-donating)
Conclusion:
As the number of alkyl groups increases, acidity decreases due to increased destabilization of the conjugate base (alkoxide).
So, the correct acidity order is:
1° > 2° > 3°. -
Question 155 of 180
155. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryIf a decomposition reaction occurs by release of a gas in a container having moveable piston, the heat change & work are given as:
Correct
Explanation: C
Decomposition reactions absorb heat so q is positive & gas released does work on piston so work done is negative.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Decomposition reactions absorb heat so q is positive & gas released does work on piston so work done is negative. -
Question 156 of 180
156. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryTerminal alkynes can be differentiated from internal alkynes by:
A. AgNO3+ NH4OH
B. Cu2Cl2 + NH4OH
C. Both A and B
D. Na/NH3(l)Correct
Explanation: C
1. With AgNO3 + NH4OH (Tollens’ Reagent Variant):
Terminal alkyne forms a white precipitate of silver acetylide:
RC ≡ CH + AgNO3 + NH4OH → RC ≡ C Ag↓ + NH4 NO3 + H2O
2. With Cu2Cl2 + NH4OH :
Terminal alkyne forms a red precipitate of copper(I) acetylide:
RC ≡ CH + Cu2Cl2 + NH4 OH → RC ≡ C Cu↓ + NH4Cl + H2O
These color changes or precipitates confirm the presence of a terminal alkyne.
Na/NH3(l) : This is a reducing system used in Birch reduction to partially hydrogenate alkynes to trans-alkenes, but it does not distinguish terminal from internal alkynes.Incorrect
Explanation: C
1. With AgNO3 + NH4OH (Tollens’ Reagent Variant):
Terminal alkyne forms a white precipitate of silver acetylide:
RC ≡ CH + AgNO3 + NH4OH → RC ≡ C Ag↓ + NH4 NO3 + H2O
2. With Cu2Cl2 + NH4OH :
Terminal alkyne forms a red precipitate of copper(I) acetylide:
RC ≡ CH + Cu2Cl2 + NH4 OH → RC ≡ C Cu↓ + NH4Cl + H2O
These color changes or precipitates confirm the presence of a terminal alkyne.
Na/NH3(l) : This is a reducing system used in Birch reduction to partially hydrogenate alkynes to trans-alkenes, but it does not distinguish terminal from internal alkynes. -
Question 157 of 180
157. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryWhich change increases the rate of evaporation most effectively?
Correct
Explanation: C
Hint/Trick:
Humidity↓, Area↑, Strength of IMFs↓, Temperature↑ → faster evaporation.
Higher T gives more molecules above escape energy; larger area, lower humidity, and weaker IMFs also help.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Hint/Trick:
Humidity↓, Area↑, Strength of IMFs↓, Temperature↑ → faster evaporation.
Higher T gives more molecules above escape energy; larger area, lower humidity, and weaker IMFs also help. -
Question 158 of 180
158. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryA reaction whose rate limiting step does not involve any collision between reactants to form unsaturated product in alkyl halides is:
A. E1
B. E2
C. SN1
D. SN2Correct
Explanation: A
Unsaturated product is formed in elimination reactions, & reaction whose rate limiting step is unimolecular is E1 rather than E2.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Unsaturated product is formed in elimination reactions, & reaction whose rate limiting step is unimolecular is E1 rather than E2. -
Question 159 of 180
159. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryIf a gas is compressed slowly and isothermally, which of the following statements is true?
Correct
Explanation C
The process is isothermal → Temperature (T) is constant.
The gas is compressed slowly → Volume (V) decreases.
Boyle’s Law:
P1V1=P2V2 (at constant T)
If the volume decreases, then the pressure must increase to keep the product PV constant.
Compression → V↓
For
P × V = constant → P↑
Since the process is isothermal, T remains constant (no net heat change in internal energy).Incorrect
Explanation C
The process is isothermal → Temperature (T) is constant.
The gas is compressed slowly → Volume (V) decreases.
Boyle’s Law:
P1V1=P2V2 (at constant T)
If the volume decreases, then the pressure must increase to keep the product PV constant.
Compression → V↓
For
P × V = constant → P↑
Since the process is isothermal, T remains constant (no net heat change in internal energy). -
Question 160 of 180
160. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryAcetyl chloride reacts with benzene in the presence of AlCl3 catalyst to generate:
Correct
Explanation: B
Reaction type: Friedel–Crafts acylation
Acetyl benzene + C6H6 → (AlCl3) → Acetophenone.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Reaction type: Friedel–Crafts acylation
Acetyl benzene + C6H6 → (AlCl3) → Acetophenone. -
Question 161 of 180
161. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryNon ideal behaviour of a gas can be judged by:
Correct
Explanation: D
Non-ideal gas behavior is recognized in several ways:
1. Z value (compressibility factor):
• Z = PV/nRT
• For an ideal gas, Z = 1.
• Deviation from 1 → non-ideal behavior.
2. Graph between Z and P:
• For real gases, this graph deviates from a straight line (which would be Z = 1).
• Shows how compressibility changes with pressure.
3. Graph of Boyle’s law (PV vs P):
• Ideal gas → horizontal line (PV constant).
• Real gas → curved line due to intermolecular forces.
Hence, all these methods reveal non-ideal (real) gas behavior.Incorrect
Explanation: D
Non-ideal gas behavior is recognized in several ways:
1. Z value (compressibility factor):
• Z = PV/nRT
• For an ideal gas, Z = 1.
• Deviation from 1 → non-ideal behavior.
2. Graph between Z and P:
• For real gases, this graph deviates from a straight line (which would be Z = 1).
• Shows how compressibility changes with pressure.
3. Graph of Boyle’s law (PV vs P):
• Ideal gas → horizontal line (PV constant).
• Real gas → curved line due to intermolecular forces.
Hence, all these methods reveal non-ideal (real) gas behavior. -
Question 162 of 180
162. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryTertiary alkyl halide of the given:
Correct
Explanation: D

The carbon bearing Cl is connected to three methyl groups → Tertiary (3°) alkyl halide
2-Methyl-1-Butene CH2 = C(CH3)CH2CH3
This is an alkene, not an alkyl halide
1-Chlorobutane CH3CH2CH2CH2Cl
The carbon bearing Cl is attached to only one other carbon → Primary (1°) alkyl halide
Bromobenzene C6H5Br
The Br is directly attached to a benzene ring, which is an aryl halide, not an alkyl halide.Incorrect
Explanation: D

The carbon bearing Cl is connected to three methyl groups → Tertiary (3°) alkyl halide
2-Methyl-1-Butene CH2 = C(CH3)CH2CH3
This is an alkene, not an alkyl halide
1-Chlorobutane CH3CH2CH2CH2Cl
The carbon bearing Cl is attached to only one other carbon → Primary (1°) alkyl halide
Bromobenzene C6H5Br
The Br is directly attached to a benzene ring, which is an aryl halide, not an alkyl halide. -
Question 163 of 180
163. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnglishPassage: Festival Day Pass rules: “Valid after 09.30 on weekdays; any time on Sundays. Not valid on services starting from the Airport line. Exception: the Airport-line restriction is waived for journeys ending in Zone 1 after 18.00 on Fridays. Contactless top-ups allowed.” Which journey is permitted with the pass?
Correct
Explanation A
A. Friday 18:10: Airport → Central (Zone 1)
Starts at Airport → normally not allowed
But it’s Friday after 18:00, and journey ends in Zone 1
Allowed under the exception-PERMITTED
B. Wednesday 09:25: Westfield → Harbour (Zone 3)
Weekday (Wednesday) → must be after 09:30
Time is 09:25 → too early
C. Saturday 08:15: Airport → Riverside (Zone 2)
Saturday = Weekend → no 09:30 restriction mentioned, but:
Starts at Airport line → Airport restriction applies
Journey does NOT end in Zone 1
Exception does not apply
D. Friday 17:50: Airport → Central (Zone 1)
Starts at Airport → normally not allowed
Friday = (Right)
BUT time is 17:50, before 18:00 → restriction still applies.Incorrect
Explanation A
A. Friday 18:10: Airport → Central (Zone 1)
Starts at Airport → normally not allowed
But it’s Friday after 18:00, and journey ends in Zone 1
Allowed under the exception-PERMITTED
B. Wednesday 09:25: Westfield → Harbour (Zone 3)
Weekday (Wednesday) → must be after 09:30
Time is 09:25 → too early
C. Saturday 08:15: Airport → Riverside (Zone 2)
Saturday = Weekend → no 09:30 restriction mentioned, but:
Starts at Airport line → Airport restriction applies
Journey does NOT end in Zone 1
Exception does not apply
D. Friday 17:50: Airport → Central (Zone 1)
Starts at Airport → normally not allowed
Friday = (Right)
BUT time is 17:50, before 18:00 → restriction still applies. -
Question 164 of 180
164. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnglishThe report’s salient points appear in the executive summary. Salient most nearly means:
Correct
Explanation: C
Concept: Genre convention—executive summary highlights key points.
A. Disputed → unrelated in meaning
B. Minor → the opposite of salient
C. Most notable → Correct meaning
D. Numerical → refers to numbers, not relevance.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Concept: Genre convention—executive summary highlights key points.
A. Disputed → unrelated in meaning
B. Minor → the opposite of salient
C. Most notable → Correct meaning
D. Numerical → refers to numbers, not relevance. -
Question 165 of 180
165. Question
1 pointsCategory: English“The moon, a blind coin in the sky,” is primarily:
Correct
Explanation: B
Identifies the moon as a coin (no like/as) = metaphor; “blind” shapes a visual mood.
A. Simile → compares two things using “like” or “as”.
→ Not used here
B. Metaphor → direct comparison between two things without “like” or “as”. → Moon = blind coin
C. Oxymoron → contradiction in terms (e.g., “deafening silence”).
→ Not applicable here
D. Hyperbole → deliberate exaggeration.
→ No exaggeration here.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Identifies the moon as a coin (no like/as) = metaphor; “blind” shapes a visual mood.
A. Simile → compares two things using “like” or “as”.
→ Not used here
B. Metaphor → direct comparison between two things without “like” or “as”. → Moon = blind coin
C. Oxymoron → contradiction in terms (e.g., “deafening silence”).
→ Not applicable here
D. Hyperbole → deliberate exaggeration.
→ No exaggeration here. -
Question 166 of 180
166. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnglishSentence correction: “Either the printers or the router lost their connection.”
Correct
Explanation: B
When you have “either…or”, the verb and pronoun should agree with the noun closest to them (the one that comes after “or”).
Here, the nouns are:
printers → plural
router → singular
The noun closest to the verb is router → singular.
Because router is singular, we use “its” (not “their”).Incorrect
Explanation: B
When you have “either…or”, the verb and pronoun should agree with the noun closest to them (the one that comes after “or”).
Here, the nouns are:
printers → plural
router → singular
The noun closest to the verb is router → singular.
Because router is singular, we use “its” (not “their”). -
Question 167 of 180
167. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnglishIf you __________ him tomorrow, ask whether he ____________ the draft.
Correct
Explanation: A
This is a first conditional structure.
Even though “tomorrow” refers to the future, in real conditional sentences, we use simple present tense in the “if” clause.
Correct form: “If you see him tomorrow…”
we’re checking if he has already received the draft by the time you talk to him.
That means we need the present perfect tense → “has received”
“Received” (simple past) would suggest a fixed time in the past — but here, we don’t know exactly when he got it, only whether he has it now.
Correct form: “ask whether he has received the draft.”Incorrect
Explanation: A
This is a first conditional structure.
Even though “tomorrow” refers to the future, in real conditional sentences, we use simple present tense in the “if” clause.
Correct form: “If you see him tomorrow…”
we’re checking if he has already received the draft by the time you talk to him.
That means we need the present perfect tense → “has received”
“Received” (simple past) would suggest a fixed time in the past — but here, we don’t know exactly when he got it, only whether he has it now.
Correct form: “ask whether he has received the draft.” -
Question 168 of 180
168. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnglishWhat is the name for a group of words that contains a subject and a verb but does not express a complete thought?
Correct
Explanation: B
Phrase → group of words without both subject and verb.
Clause → group of words with a subject and verb.
Independent clause → expresses a complete thought.
Dependent clause → does not express a complete thought.
Sentence → expresses a complete thought.
Paragraph → a collection of sentences on one idea.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Phrase → group of words without both subject and verb.
Clause → group of words with a subject and verb.
Independent clause → expresses a complete thought.
Dependent clause → does not express a complete thought.
Sentence → expresses a complete thought.
Paragraph → a collection of sentences on one idea. -
Question 169 of 180
169. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnglishI’ll finish the draft ____________ Tuesday
Correct
Explanation: B
Concept: Deadline—“by” means “no later than”.
Why Correct: Promise to complete no later than Tuesday → “by Tuesday”.
Option A: “until Tuesday” indicates continuing up to that time, not completion.
Option B: Correct for deadlines.
Option C: “on Tuesday” specifies the day, not deadline flexibility.
Option D: “during Tuesday” is awkward.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Concept: Deadline—“by” means “no later than”.
Why Correct: Promise to complete no later than Tuesday → “by Tuesday”.
Option A: “until Tuesday” indicates continuing up to that time, not completion.
Option B: Correct for deadlines.
Option C: “on Tuesday” specifies the day, not deadline flexibility.
Option D: “during Tuesday” is awkward. -
Question 170 of 180
170. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnglishWhich sentence contains a subject-verb agreement error?
Correct
Explanation: B
Neither the students nor the teacher are to blame for the misprint
Closest subject to the verb: teacher (singular).
Verb: are → plural (wrong) should agree with teacher → “is.”
Corrected: Neither the students nor the teacher is to blame for the misprint.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Neither the students nor the teacher are to blame for the misprint
Closest subject to the verb: teacher (singular).
Verb: are → plural (wrong) should agree with teacher → “is.”
Corrected: Neither the students nor the teacher is to blame for the misprint. -
Question 171 of 180
171. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnglishWhich uses ‘yet’ correctly in a negative sentence?
Correct
Explanation: A
“Yet” is used to show that something hasn’t happened up to now, but is expected.
It typically comes at the end of the sentence.Incorrect
Explanation: A
“Yet” is used to show that something hasn’t happened up to now, but is expected.
It typically comes at the end of the sentence. -
Question 172 of 180
172. Question
1 pointsCategory: Logical Reasoning2,5,9,?,20,27.
Correct
Explanation: A
The pattern is +3, +4, +5, +6,…..
So, missing term = 9 + 5 = 14Incorrect
Explanation: A
The pattern is +3, +4, +5, +6,…..
So, missing term = 9 + 5 = 14 -
Question 173 of 180
173. Question
1 pointsCategory: Logical ReasoningI. The stock market saw a sudden crash during the opening hours.
II. A major geopolitical conflict broke out overnight between two oil-rich nations.Correct
Explanation: B
A geopolitical conflict between oil-rich nations often leads to economic uncertainty, oil price surges, and investor panic.
These factors can trigger a stock market crash.
Thus, the conflict (Statement II) is the cause, and the market crash (Statement I) is the effect.Incorrect
Explanation: B
A geopolitical conflict between oil-rich nations often leads to economic uncertainty, oil price surges, and investor panic.
These factors can trigger a stock market crash.
Thus, the conflict (Statement II) is the cause, and the market crash (Statement I) is the effect. -
Question 174 of 180
174. Question
1 pointsCategory: Logical ReasoningStatement: Should wearing helmets be made mandatory for two-wheeler riders?
Arguments:
I. Yes, helmets reduce risk of fatal head injuries.
II. No, it’s an individual’s personal choice.Correct
Explanation: A
Argument I: This is a strong argument because it is logical, fact-based, and supports public safety.
The main purpose of a law mandating helmets is to protect lives, and this argument directly supports that.
Argument II: This is a weak argument, because personal freedom cannot outweigh public safety laws.
The government often enforces safety regulations (like seatbelts or helmets) to protect citizens from preventable harm.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Argument I: This is a strong argument because it is logical, fact-based, and supports public safety.
The main purpose of a law mandating helmets is to protect lives, and this argument directly supports that.
Argument II: This is a weak argument, because personal freedom cannot outweigh public safety laws.
The government often enforces safety regulations (like seatbelts or helmets) to protect citizens from preventable harm. -
Question 175 of 180
175. Question
1 pointsCategory: Logical ReasoningStatement: Many software companies are shifting to work-from-home models permanently.
Conclusions:
I. Companies find it cost-effective to allow employees to work remotely.
II. Employees prefer to work from office settings.Correct
Explanation: A
Conclusion I: This is a logical conclusion.
The decision to permanently adopt work-from-home likely stems from cost savings such as reduced office rent, utilities, and infrastructure expenses. Conclusion I follows.
Conclusion II: This conclusion contradicts the situation.
The statement gives no information about employees’ preferences.
Conclusion II does not follow.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Conclusion I: This is a logical conclusion.
The decision to permanently adopt work-from-home likely stems from cost savings such as reduced office rent, utilities, and infrastructure expenses. Conclusion I follows.
Conclusion II: This conclusion contradicts the situation.
The statement gives no information about employees’ preferences.
Conclusion II does not follow. -
Question 176 of 180
176. Question
1 pointsCategory: Logical ReasoningStatements: B ≥ C > D ≤ E ≤ F < G
Conclusions:
I. B ≥ F
II. D < GCorrect
Explanation: C
Statement: B ≥ C > D ≤ E ≤ F < G
Thus, we can’t compare B and F. Hence I (B ≥ F) is not true. Again, D < G is true. Hence II is true.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Statement: B ≥ C > D ≤ E ≤ F < G
Thus, we can’t compare B and F. Hence I (B ≥ F) is not true. Again, D < G is true. Hence II is true. -
Question 177 of 180
177. Question
1 pointsCategory: Logical ReasoningC4X,F9U,I16R,?
Correct
Explanation: C
Incorrect
Explanation: C

-
Question 178 of 180
178. Question
1 pointsCategory: Logical ReasoningAll omnivores are herbivores. No herbivores are carnivores. Some carnivores are humans. Which of the following conclusions are TRUE?
CONCLUSIONS: I. Some humans are carnivores. II. No carnivores are omnivores. III. Some omnivores are carnivores.Correct
Explanation: A

Conclusion I: TRUE.
This is directly stated in the premise (“Some carnivores are humans”).
Conclusion II: TRUE.
Since all omnivores are herbivores, and no herbivore is a carnivore,
⇒ no carnivore can be an omnivore (by transitive exclusion).
Conclusion III: FALSE.
Again, omnivores are inside herbivores, and herbivores and carnivores do not overlap,
⇒ no omnivore can be a carnivore.Incorrect
Explanation: A

Conclusion I: TRUE.
This is directly stated in the premise (“Some carnivores are humans”).
Conclusion II: TRUE.
Since all omnivores are herbivores, and no herbivore is a carnivore,
⇒ no carnivore can be an omnivore (by transitive exclusion).
Conclusion III: FALSE.
Again, omnivores are inside herbivores, and herbivores and carnivores do not overlap,
⇒ no omnivore can be a carnivore. -
Question 179 of 180
179. Question
1 pointsCategory: Logical ReasoningStatement: “No exchange or refund will be allowed after 10 days of purchase.” – Notice at a retail store.
Assumptions:
I. Some customers may want to return products.
II. The store wants to avoid long-term liabilities.
III. Products sold are likely to be defective.Correct
Explanation: A
Assumption I: This is implicit.
The rule exists because the store expects that some customers may attempt to return items.
Without such behavior, there would be no need for the notice.
Assumption II: This is also implicit.
By limiting returns/refunds to 10 days, the store avoids being responsible for products long after the sale, which could cause management and financial complications.
Assumption III: Not implicit.
The rule is about time limit, not product quality.
Even if all products are perfect, the store would still set a time limit to standardize policy.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Assumption I: This is implicit.
The rule exists because the store expects that some customers may attempt to return items.
Without such behavior, there would be no need for the notice.
Assumption II: This is also implicit.
By limiting returns/refunds to 10 days, the store avoids being responsible for products long after the sale, which could cause management and financial complications.
Assumption III: Not implicit.
The rule is about time limit, not product quality.
Even if all products are perfect, the store would still set a time limit to standardize policy. -
Question 180 of 180
180. Question
1 pointsCategory: Logical ReasoningFour friends in the sixth grade were sharing a pizza. They decided that the oldest friend would get the extra piece. Raheel is two months older than Gull, who is three months younger than Nadeem. Kashif is one month older than Gull. Who should get the extra piece of pizza?
Correct
Explanation: C
If Raheel is two months older than Gull, then Nadeem is three months older than Gull and one month older than Raheel. Kashif is younger than both Raheel and Nadeem. Nadeem is the oldest.
Nadeem > Raheel > Kashif > Gull.Incorrect
Explanation: C
If Raheel is two months older than Gull, then Nadeem is three months older than Gull and one month older than Raheel. Kashif is younger than both Raheel and Nadeem. Nadeem is the oldest.
Nadeem > Raheel > Kashif > Gull.