Test-13 2025
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Information
- Format: Online – From Home
- Total # of MCQs: 180
Biology = 81 + Physics = 36 + Chemistry = 45 + English = 9 + Logical Reasoning = 9 - Time Duration : 180 Minute (3 hours)
The Test is Programmed with Time Restriction, Which will Teach you Time Management. - No Negative Marking
So, Attempt all the Questions. - Kindly keep some rough pages and pen with you for rough work
- The Explanations of all the MCQ’s will be provided to you with Your Right & Wrong Answers on completion of this Test.
- Bismillah & Darood Sharif Phr k, Start your Test/Quiz, and Attempt it with Full Concentration.
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- Answered
- Review
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Question 1 of 180
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsElement X has atomic mass A and atomic number Z, it emits some radiations so that its new atomic mass becomes A-8 and new atomic no Z-2, Then what is true regarding emitted radiations.
Correct
Explanation: A
Two α decays give A → A – 8 and Z → Z – 4. To get Z → Z – 2, add two β– decays (each β– : Z → Z + 1, A unchanged).Incorrect
Explanation: A
Two α decays give A → A – 8 and Z → Z – 4. To get Z → Z – 2, add two β– decays (each β– : Z → Z + 1, A unchanged). -
Question 2 of 180
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsZero field point between the a positive and a negative charge with different magnitudes is:
Correct
Explanation: D

Incorrect
Explanation: D


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Question 3 of 180
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsWhich of the following statements is correct regarding magnetic flux?
Correct
Explanation: C
Incorrect
Explanation: C

-
Question 4 of 180
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsWhich of the following statements is correct regarding a capacitor?
Correct
Explanation: A
Current through a capacitor depends on how fast the voltage changes.
XC = 1/ωC
• DC: ω = 0 ⇒ XC → ∞ ⇒ open circuit.
• AC: ω > 0 ⇒ XC finite ⇒ current flows (larger at higher f).
Hint: Capacitor passes change, blocks constant. DC (no change) → blocks; AC (keeps changing) → passes.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Current through a capacitor depends on how fast the voltage changes.
XC = 1/ωC
• DC: ω = 0 ⇒ XC → ∞ ⇒ open circuit.
• AC: ω > 0 ⇒ XC finite ⇒ current flows (larger at higher f).
Hint: Capacitor passes change, blocks constant. DC (no change) → blocks; AC (keeps changing) → passes. -
Question 5 of 180
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsIn Photoelectric electric effect the graph between frequency of photons and Kinetic energy of photons is a:
Correct
Explanation: B
KE of electrons is directly proportional to frequency of photon, but no photons will be released before threshold frequency therefore line will not start from zero but after threshold frequency.Incorrect
Explanation: B
KE of electrons is directly proportional to frequency of photon, but no photons will be released before threshold frequency therefore line will not start from zero but after threshold frequency. -
Question 6 of 180
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsWhile calculating electric field due to sheet of charges using gauss’s law. The size of the sheet is taken as infinite in order to:
Correct
Explanation: C
Fringing is the bending of field at the top and bottom end of the sheet, to avoid this size of the sheet is taken as infinite so that there is no top and bottom end.
• To use Gauss’s law neatly, we choose a Gaussian pillbox that cuts through the sheet.
• If the sheet is treated as infinite, the situation has planar symmetry: the electric field is perpendicular to the sheet and uniform (same magnitude) on both sides, and there’s no fringing (no bending of field lines near edges).
• Then the side surface of the pillbox gets zero flux, and only the two flat faces contribute:
Φ = 2EA, Qenc = σA, 2EA = σA/ε0 ⇒ E = σ/2ε0.
For a finite sheet, edges cause fringing, the field isn’t perfectly uniform or strictly perpendicular everywhere, and flux through the side isn’t zero—so the simple derivation breaks.
Why not A or B (or D)?
• We don’t make the sheet “infinite” to “make charges/area sufficient.” Gauss’s law works for any enclosed charge; the infinity assumption is purely to ensure symmetry and eliminate edge (fringing) effects. Hence only C is correct, not “All of these.”Incorrect
Explanation: C
Fringing is the bending of field at the top and bottom end of the sheet, to avoid this size of the sheet is taken as infinite so that there is no top and bottom end.
• To use Gauss’s law neatly, we choose a Gaussian pillbox that cuts through the sheet.
• If the sheet is treated as infinite, the situation has planar symmetry: the electric field is perpendicular to the sheet and uniform (same magnitude) on both sides, and there’s no fringing (no bending of field lines near edges).
• Then the side surface of the pillbox gets zero flux, and only the two flat faces contribute:
Φ = 2EA, Qenc = σA, 2EA = σA/ε0 ⇒ E = σ/2ε0.
For a finite sheet, edges cause fringing, the field isn’t perfectly uniform or strictly perpendicular everywhere, and flux through the side isn’t zero—so the simple derivation breaks.
Why not A or B (or D)?
• We don’t make the sheet “infinite” to “make charges/area sufficient.” Gauss’s law works for any enclosed charge; the infinity assumption is purely to ensure symmetry and eliminate edge (fringing) effects. Hence only C is correct, not “All of these.” -
Question 7 of 180
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsTwo electrons enter into a uniform magnetic field with different velocities, then the electron that enters into the magnetic field with more velocity will be Deflected:
Correct
Explanation: B
Incorrect
Explanation: B

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Question 8 of 180
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsCancerous tissue in a thyroid gland can be detected by the intake of:
Correct
Explanation: A
Radioiodine scan: This test can detect thyroid cancer and determine if cancer has spread. You swallow a pill containing a safe amount of radioactive iodine (radioiodine). Over a few hours, the thyroid gland absorbs the iodine.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Radioiodine scan: This test can detect thyroid cancer and determine if cancer has spread. You swallow a pill containing a safe amount of radioactive iodine (radioiodine). Over a few hours, the thyroid gland absorbs the iodine. -
Question 9 of 180
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsPower loss during half cycle of AC in a capacitive circuit is:
Correct
Explanation: C
Power loss during quarter cycle = either Positive or negative
Power during half and full cycle = 0
Energy viewpoint
In the first quarter-cycle, the capacitor stores energy (W – 1/2 CV2); in the next quarter, it returns the same energy to the source. Over the half cycle, gains and returns cancel.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Power loss during quarter cycle = either Positive or negative
Power during half and full cycle = 0
Energy viewpoint
In the first quarter-cycle, the capacitor stores energy (W – 1/2 CV2); in the next quarter, it returns the same energy to the source. Over the half cycle, gains and returns cancel. -
Question 10 of 180
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsFor monochromatic light in vacuum, which operation increases the momentum p of each photon?
Correct
Explanation: B
Photon momentum p = h/λ = hv/e. Shorter λ (higher v) = Larger p.
Why other are wrong:
Changing intensity alters photon number, not p per photon (C).
Polarization rotation doesn’t change p (D).
Longer wavelength reduces p (A).Incorrect
Explanation: B
Photon momentum p = h/λ = hv/e. Shorter λ (higher v) = Larger p.
Why other are wrong:
Changing intensity alters photon number, not p per photon (C).
Polarization rotation doesn’t change p (D).
Longer wavelength reduces p (A). -
Question 11 of 180
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsIf an electron and a proton are accelerated through same potential, which one will achieve more velocity:
Correct
Explanation: A
Electrical energy = KE
Ve = 1/2 mv2, if V and e are same, velocity is inversely proportional to mass, so lesser the mass more the velocity.
As electron have less mass than proton its velocity will be more.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Electrical energy = KE
Ve = 1/2 mv2, if V and e are same, velocity is inversely proportional to mass, so lesser the mass more the velocity.
As electron have less mass than proton its velocity will be more. -
Question 12 of 180
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsA negatively charged particle moving parallel to uniform, co-linear electric and magnetic fields will:
Correct
Explanation: A
Incorrect
Explanation: A

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Question 13 of 180
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsWhich of the following rays are most commonly used in satellite communications?
Correct
Explanation: A
Know the spectrum
• EM spectrum (low → high frequency): radio → microwaves → infrared → visible → UV → X-rays → gamma.
Why satellites use microwaves
Penetrate the Ionosphere, High bandwidth, Tight beams, Practical antenna sizes.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Know the spectrum
• EM spectrum (low → high frequency): radio → microwaves → infrared → visible → UV → X-rays → gamma.
Why satellites use microwaves
Penetrate the Ionosphere, High bandwidth, Tight beams, Practical antenna sizes. -
Question 14 of 180
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsWhich of the following is incorrect regarding photon?
Correct
Explanation: D
• Quantum of electromagnetic radiation; travels at speed c.
• Rest mass: m0 = 0 (Option A is correct).
• Charge: q = 0 (Option C is correct).
• It travels at the speed of light in vacuum. Correct
. Energy-momentum of a photon
• Energy: E = hν = hc/λ
• Momentum: p = E/c = h/λ ≠ 0
• So, photons do carry momentum.Incorrect
Explanation: D
• Quantum of electromagnetic radiation; travels at speed c.
• Rest mass: m0 = 0 (Option A is correct).
• Charge: q = 0 (Option C is correct).
• It travels at the speed of light in vacuum. Correct
. Energy-momentum of a photon
• Energy: E = hν = hc/λ
• Momentum: p = E/c = h/λ ≠ 0
• So, photons do carry momentum. -
Question 15 of 180
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsA small capacitor is connected to a small resistance, then which of the following statements is correct:
Correct
Explanation: D
The speed of charging/discharging of an RC circuit is set by the time constant
τ = RC.
• Charging: VC (t) = V(1 – e–t/RC)
• Discharging: VC (t) = V0 e–t/RC
A small capacitance C and a small resistance R make τ small, so both the rise (charging) and decay (discharging) curves reach their target values rapidly.
Rule: smaller R or C ⇒ smaller τ ⇒ faster response (Small time constant means that a capacitor charges and discharges quickly)
larger R or C ⇒ slower response.Incorrect
Explanation: D
The speed of charging/discharging of an RC circuit is set by the time constant
τ = RC.
• Charging: VC (t) = V(1 – e–t/RC)
• Discharging: VC (t) = V0 e–t/RC
A small capacitance C and a small resistance R make τ small, so both the rise (charging) and decay (discharging) curves reach their target values rapidly.
Rule: smaller R or C ⇒ smaller τ ⇒ faster response (Small time constant means that a capacitor charges and discharges quickly)
larger R or C ⇒ slower response. -
Question 16 of 180
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsMagnetic force acting on a charge can change all of the following except:
Correct
Explanation: D
Magnetic force F = qv × B is perpendicular to v ⇒ it does no work.
It can (and does) change the direction of the velocity and hence the momentum → options A and C are changeable.
• The motion is uniform circular (or helical), so there is continuous centripetal acceleration → B is changeable.
• The angular velocity (cyclotron frequency) of the circular motion isω = |q|B/m,
which is constant for given q/m and B and independent of the particle’s speed. Thus, it is not changed by the magnetic force → D.
(Note: The magnetic force also does not change the speed/kinetic energy, but “speed” isn’t among the options here).Incorrect
Explanation: D
Magnetic force F = qv × B is perpendicular to v ⇒ it does no work.
It can (and does) change the direction of the velocity and hence the momentum → options A and C are changeable.
• The motion is uniform circular (or helical), so there is continuous centripetal acceleration → B is changeable.
• The angular velocity (cyclotron frequency) of the circular motion isω = |q|B/m,
which is constant for given q/m and B and independent of the particle’s speed. Thus, it is not changed by the magnetic force → D.
(Note: The magnetic force also does not change the speed/kinetic energy, but “speed” isn’t among the options here). -
Question 17 of 180
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsTwo transmission plans deliver the same power P over identical lines with resistance R: Plan X uses high V, low I; Plan Y uses low V, high I. Which statement is correct?
Correct
Explanation: D
For fixed P, raising V lowers I. Cable heating depends on I2R, so the low-current plan (X) wastes less energy as heat. Equal power transfer does not imply equal losses; losses depend on current, not on P alone.Incorrect
Explanation: D
For fixed P, raising V lowers I. Cable heating depends on I2R, so the low-current plan (X) wastes less energy as heat. Equal power transfer does not imply equal losses; losses depend on current, not on P alone. -
Question 18 of 180
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsCompton’s wavelength is maximum when
Correct
Explanation: C
Compton wavelength shift Δλ = h/mc(1–cosθ) depends only on the scattering angle θ (and the scatterer’s mass). It’s maximal for backscatter θ=180° :Δλmax = 2h/(mc), regardless of the photon’s frequency or wavelength. (A photon’s “velocity” isn’t adjustable-it’s c in vacuum.)Incorrect
Explanation: C
Compton wavelength shift Δλ = h/mc(1–cosθ) depends only on the scattering angle θ (and the scatterer’s mass). It’s maximal for backscatter θ=180° :Δλmax = 2h/(mc), regardless of the photon’s frequency or wavelength. (A photon’s “velocity” isn’t adjustable-it’s c in vacuum.) -
Question 19 of 180
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsHow much time is required to charge a capacitor to 100%?
Correct
Explanation: D
Time required to charge a capacitor to 100%= infinite
For a charging RC circuit,
VC (t) = V(1 – e–t/τ), τ = RC
To reach 100% of the supply voltage, we would need
1 – e–t /τ = 1 ⇒ e –t/τ = 0
which happens only as t → ∞. So, a capacitor never reaches exactly 100% in finite time-it approaches it asymptotically.
Useful benchmarks for MCQs (“practically full”):
• t = 1τ : ~63.2%
• t = 2τ : ∼86.5%
• t = 3τ : ∼95.0%
• t = 4τ : ~98.2%
• t = 5τ : ~99.3% (often taken as “fully charged” in practice, but not mathematically 100%).Incorrect
Explanation: D
Time required to charge a capacitor to 100%= infinite
For a charging RC circuit,
VC (t) = V(1 – e–t/τ), τ = RC
To reach 100% of the supply voltage, we would need
1 – e–t /τ = 1 ⇒ e –t/τ = 0
which happens only as t → ∞. So, a capacitor never reaches exactly 100% in finite time-it approaches it asymptotically.
Useful benchmarks for MCQs (“practically full”):
• t = 1τ : ~63.2%
• t = 2τ : ∼86.5%
• t = 3τ : ∼95.0%
• t = 4τ : ~98.2%
• t = 5τ : ~99.3% (often taken as “fully charged” in practice, but not mathematically 100%). -
Question 20 of 180
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsIf the rate of change of flux through two metal rings of same dimensions made of different materials is same, then which of the following statements is correct:
Correct
Explanation: A

Incorrect
Explanation: A


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Question 21 of 180
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsIn a purely capacitive AC circuit (ideal capacitor C), the current relative to the applied voltage
A. lags by 900
B. leads by 900
C. Is in phase.
D. is 1800 out of phase.Correct
Explanation: B
For a capacitor, current is proportional to the rate of change of voltage, so current reaches its peak before voltage does. Hence, current leads voltage by 900.Incorrect
Explanation: B
For a capacitor, current is proportional to the rate of change of voltage, so current reaches its peak before voltage does. Hence, current leads voltage by 900. -
Question 22 of 180
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsDark lines on a bright screen represents:
Correct
Explanation: A
Dark lines on bright bg = line absorption spectrum
Bright lines on dark bg = line emission spectrum.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Dark lines on bright bg = line absorption spectrum
Bright lines on dark bg = line emission spectrum. -
Question 23 of 180
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsThe charge of an electron is 1.6 × 10–19 C. How many electrons strike the screen of a cathode ray tube each second when the beam current is 16 mA?
A. 1019
B. 10–19
C. 1017
D. 10–17Correct
Explanation: C
I = Q / t
Q = ne {where n is the number of electrons, e is the charge of an electron}
I = ne / t
16 × 10–3 = n × 1.6 × 10–19 / 1
n = 16 × 10–3 / 16 × 10-20
n = 1 × 1017 electrons.Incorrect
Explanation: C
I = Q / t
Q = ne {where n is the number of electrons, e is the charge of an electron}
I = ne / t
16 × 10–3 = n × 1.6 × 10–19 / 1
n = 16 × 10–3 / 16 × 10-20
n = 1 × 1017 electrons. -
Question 24 of 180
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsAccording to Lenz’s law which of the following statements is correct:
Correct
Explanation: A
State Lenz’s law
• The induced emf/current in a circuit opposes the change in magnetic flux that produces it.
• Mathematically: ε =− Δ Φ/ Δ t. The negative sign encodes the opposition.
2. Energy meaning behind the opposition
• Because the induced current opposes the change, you must do extra mechanical work (push/pull harder) to keep the change happening.
• That mechanical work doesn’t vanish—it is converted into electrical energy of the induced current (then typically into heat i2R or stored as magnetic energy).
Conceptual example
• Push a bar magnet into a coil. The coil’s induced current produces a magnetic field that repels the magnet’s motion.
• Your hand supplies mechanical energy → coil has induced emf and current → electrical energy (often dissipated as heat).
What Lenz’s law is NOT claiming
• B. Electrical → Mechanical happens in motors (Lorentz force) but that’s not what Lenz’s law is asserting.
• C. Mechanical → Chemical is about batteries/electrochemistry; not Lenz’s law.
5. Energy-conservation hook
• Lenz’s law enforces conservation of energy: the opposition ensures the electrical energy comes from the mechanical work you do.Incorrect
Explanation: A
State Lenz’s law
• The induced emf/current in a circuit opposes the change in magnetic flux that produces it.
• Mathematically: ε =− Δ Φ/ Δ t. The negative sign encodes the opposition.
2. Energy meaning behind the opposition
• Because the induced current opposes the change, you must do extra mechanical work (push/pull harder) to keep the change happening.
• That mechanical work doesn’t vanish—it is converted into electrical energy of the induced current (then typically into heat i2R or stored as magnetic energy).
Conceptual example
• Push a bar magnet into a coil. The coil’s induced current produces a magnetic field that repels the magnet’s motion.
• Your hand supplies mechanical energy → coil has induced emf and current → electrical energy (often dissipated as heat).
What Lenz’s law is NOT claiming
• B. Electrical → Mechanical happens in motors (Lorentz force) but that’s not what Lenz’s law is asserting.
• C. Mechanical → Chemical is about batteries/electrochemistry; not Lenz’s law.
5. Energy-conservation hook
• Lenz’s law enforces conservation of energy: the opposition ensures the electrical energy comes from the mechanical work you do. -
Question 25 of 180
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsAfter full wave rectification frequency of output is ____________ of frequency of input AC.
Correct
Explanation: B
1. What full-wave rectifiers do:
They flip the negative half-cycles to positive, so both halves of each AC cycle appear as output pulses.
2. Cycle vs pulses:
• Input: 1 cycle –1 positive half +1 negative half.
• After full-wave: both halves become positive pulses → 2 pulses per input cycle.
3. Frequency relation:
If the input frequency is fin, the output pulse (ripple) frequency is
fout = 2fin.
4. Quick example:
Mains 50 Hz → full-wave ripple 100 Hz.
Mains 60 Hz → full-wave ripple 120 Hz.
Memory hook: Full-wave uses full cycle → two pulses per cycle →2f.Incorrect
Explanation: B
1. What full-wave rectifiers do:
They flip the negative half-cycles to positive, so both halves of each AC cycle appear as output pulses.
2. Cycle vs pulses:
• Input: 1 cycle –1 positive half +1 negative half.
• After full-wave: both halves become positive pulses → 2 pulses per input cycle.
3. Frequency relation:
If the input frequency is fin, the output pulse (ripple) frequency is
fout = 2fin.
4. Quick example:
Mains 50 Hz → full-wave ripple 100 Hz.
Mains 60 Hz → full-wave ripple 120 Hz.
Memory hook: Full-wave uses full cycle → two pulses per cycle →2f. -
Question 26 of 180
26. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsLast line of Paschen series have wavelength equal to _________ , where R is Rydberg constant:
Correct
Explanation: C
Incorrect
Explanation: C

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Question 27 of 180
27. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsFor ohms law to be applicable, the coefficient of resistivity of a material must be:
Correct
Explanation: C
Ohm’s law V = IR holds only if the resistance R (and hence resistivity ρ) stays essentially constant while current flows. But current heats a conductor, changing its temperature T, and most materials have a temperature coefficient of resistivity α defined by
ρ(T) = ρ0 (1 + α ΔT).
• If α is near zero, ρ changes very little with temperature → R is nearly constant → the V – I graph is linear → Ohm’s law applies.
• If α is large positive or large negative, ρ changes a lot as the conductor warms/cools → R is not constant → non-ohmic behavior.
• “Infinite” is unphysical here.
Note: All real conductors approximate Ohm’s law over limited conditions. Alloys like nichrome have a small α, which is why they’re used where a stable resistance is needed.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Ohm’s law V = IR holds only if the resistance R (and hence resistivity ρ) stays essentially constant while current flows. But current heats a conductor, changing its temperature T, and most materials have a temperature coefficient of resistivity α defined by
ρ(T) = ρ0 (1 + α ΔT).
• If α is near zero, ρ changes very little with temperature → R is nearly constant → the V – I graph is linear → Ohm’s law applies.
• If α is large positive or large negative, ρ changes a lot as the conductor warms/cools → R is not constant → non-ohmic behavior.
• “Infinite” is unphysical here.
Note: All real conductors approximate Ohm’s law over limited conditions. Alloys like nichrome have a small α, which is why they’re used where a stable resistance is needed. -
Question 28 of 180
28. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsWhen a north pole of a magnet is moved away from a metal conducting ring, then according to Lenz’s law side of the ring facing the magnet will show:
Correct
Explanation: A
As north side is moving Away, according to Lenzs law side facing the magnet will behave as south pole, meaning clockwise current will flow through it.Incorrect
Explanation: A
As north side is moving Away, according to Lenzs law side facing the magnet will behave as south pole, meaning clockwise current will flow through it. -
Question 29 of 180
29. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsAt certain Voltage during reverse biasing of a pn junction diode, there is breaking of covalent bonds and current rises abruptly, this voltage is called as:
Correct
Explanation: B
Voltage at which current rises= breaking voltage
Breaking of bonds = Zenner effect
Rise of current = Avalanche effect.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Voltage at which current rises= breaking voltage
Breaking of bonds = Zenner effect
Rise of current = Avalanche effect. -
Question 30 of 180
30. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsIn hydrogen emission, a transition n = 5 → n = 2 compared with n = 3 → n = 2 produces:
Correct
Explanation: B
The energy drop is larger from n = 5 to n = 2 than from n = 3 to n = 2. Since E = hf, a larger energy difference means higher frequency (shorter wavelength).Incorrect
Explanation: B
The energy drop is larger from n = 5 to n = 2 than from n = 3 to n = 2. Since E = hf, a larger energy difference means higher frequency (shorter wavelength). -
Question 31 of 180
31. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsAs a battery ages, its internal resistance r typically increases. With E and RL unchanged, which combined effect on the external circuit is correct?
A. I increases; Vt increases; power in RL increases
B. I decreases; Vt decreases; power in RL decreases
C. I unchanged; Vt unchanged; power in RL unchanged
D. I decreases; Vt increases; power in RL decreasesCorrect
Explanation B
Because I=E/RL+r, increasing r (with E, RL fixed) makes the denominator larger ⇒ I decreases.
Terminal voltage across the load is Vt = IRL (also = E – Ir ). Since I drops (and RL is fixed), Vt decreases.
Load power PRL= I2 RL = (Vt2/RL) therefore also decreases.Incorrect
Explanation B
Because I=E/RL+r, increasing r (with E, RL fixed) makes the denominator larger ⇒ I decreases.
Terminal voltage across the load is Vt = IRL (also = E – Ir ). Since I drops (and RL is fixed), Vt decreases.
Load power PRL= I2 RL = (Vt2/RL) therefore also decreases. -
Question 32 of 180
32. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsWhich of the following power losses are increased when a ferro magnetic core is introduced in a transformer?
Correct
Explanation: C
What happens in an air-core transformer?
• Air has no magnetic domains and is a poor conductor.
⇒ No hysteresis loss (no domains to realign).
⇒ Negligible eddy currents (no conducting core to host circulating currents).
Introduce a ferromagnetic core (e.g., steel): what changes?
• High permeability → larger flux density B for the same magnetizing current.
• The core is conductive and ferromagnetic, so two core losses appear.
Eddy-current loss increases
• Time-varying flux induces circulating currents in the conductive core.
Hysteresis loss appears/increases
• Ferromagnets have magnetic domains; each AC cycle forces domains to realign.
Design note (to avoid confusion)
• Engineers laminate the core and use high-resistivity, grain-oriented silicon steel to reduce these losses, but they are still greater than in air (where they were essentially absent).
Hint: Air core a no core losses; ferromagnetic core ⇒ eddy + hysteresis losses show up → both increase.Incorrect
Explanation: C
What happens in an air-core transformer?
• Air has no magnetic domains and is a poor conductor.
⇒ No hysteresis loss (no domains to realign).
⇒ Negligible eddy currents (no conducting core to host circulating currents).
Introduce a ferromagnetic core (e.g., steel): what changes?
• High permeability → larger flux density B for the same magnetizing current.
• The core is conductive and ferromagnetic, so two core losses appear.
Eddy-current loss increases
• Time-varying flux induces circulating currents in the conductive core.
Hysteresis loss appears/increases
• Ferromagnets have magnetic domains; each AC cycle forces domains to realign.
Design note (to avoid confusion)
• Engineers laminate the core and use high-resistivity, grain-oriented silicon steel to reduce these losses, but they are still greater than in air (where they were essentially absent).
Hint: Air core a no core losses; ferromagnetic core ⇒ eddy + hysteresis losses show up → both increase. -
Question 33 of 180
33. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsA PN junction is forward‑biased when:
Correct
Explanation: B
Connecting P to + and N to − lowers the barrier, narrows the depletion region, and allows large current dominated by majority carriers.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Connecting P to + and N to − lowers the barrier, narrows the depletion region, and allows large current dominated by majority carriers. -
Question 34 of 180
34. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsAfter time “t” 12.5% of a substance is left behind, then the half life of this substance is equal to:
Correct
Explanation: A
Incorrect
Explanation: A

-
Question 35 of 180
35. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsThe electric resistance of a certain wire of iron is R. If its length and radius are both doubled, then:
Correct
Explanation: A
Incorrect
Explanation: A

-
Question 36 of 180
36. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsWhich of the following rays is most harmful for the human bodies:
Correct
Explanation: D
Compare penetration (external exposure):
• Alpha (α): very low penetration-stopped by paper/skin.
• Beta (β): moderate-stopped by a few mm of Al/plastic.
• X-rays: high-need lead shielding.
• Gamma (γ): highest-require thick lead/concrete.
Why “most harmful”?
For whole-body external exposure, the greater the penetration and energy, the deeper and wider the damage. Gamma rays (highest frequency/energy EM) penetrate most, damaging internal organs and tissues → most hazardous in this context.Incorrect
Explanation: D
Compare penetration (external exposure):
• Alpha (α): very low penetration-stopped by paper/skin.
• Beta (β): moderate-stopped by a few mm of Al/plastic.
• X-rays: high-need lead shielding.
• Gamma (γ): highest-require thick lead/concrete.
Why “most harmful”?
For whole-body external exposure, the greater the penetration and energy, the deeper and wider the damage. Gamma rays (highest frequency/energy EM) penetrate most, damaging internal organs and tissues → most hazardous in this context. -
Question 37 of 180
37. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyIn Morgan’s experiments on Drosophila, genes for body color and wing shape were found to be located on the same chromosome. This phenomenon is called:
Correct
Explanation: B
When two or more genes are located on the same chromosome and inherited together, the phenomenon is called linkage.Incorrect
Explanation: B
When two or more genes are located on the same chromosome and inherited together, the phenomenon is called linkage. -
Question 38 of 180
38. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyCarbon monoxide poisoning occurs because:
A. It decreases the level of CO2 in blood
B. It replaces oxygen in red blood cells
C. It reacts with carbon dioxide in lungs
D. It increases oxygen transport in bloodCorrect
Explanation: B
Carbon monoxide (CO) binds with haemoglobin to form carboxy haemoglobin, which prevents oxygen from binding. Hence, oxygen supply to tissues decreases.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Carbon monoxide (CO) binds with haemoglobin to form carboxy haemoglobin, which prevents oxygen from binding. Hence, oxygen supply to tissues decreases. -
Question 39 of 180
39. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyA wave of electrochemical change that travels along a neuron is called:
Correct
Explanation: C
1. A nerve impulse is an electrochemical wave caused by the movement of ions (Na+, K+) across the neuron’s membrane.
• It involves depolarization → repolarization → hyperpolarization.
• This is the actual signal traveling along the axon.
2. Check options:
• A. Reflex arc → pathway involving receptor, sensory neuron, interneuron, motor neuron, effector. It’s not the wave itself.
• B. Reflex action → automatic, involuntary response (e.g., knee jerk).
• C. Nerve impulse → correct term for the electrochemical wave.
• D. Influx → refers to entry of ions (like Na⁺ influx), part of the process but not the whole wave.
Correct Answer: C. Nerve impulse
A nerve impulse is the traveling wave of depolarization and repolarization along the neuron membrane, allowing transmission of information.Incorrect
Explanation: C
1. A nerve impulse is an electrochemical wave caused by the movement of ions (Na+, K+) across the neuron’s membrane.
• It involves depolarization → repolarization → hyperpolarization.
• This is the actual signal traveling along the axon.
2. Check options:
• A. Reflex arc → pathway involving receptor, sensory neuron, interneuron, motor neuron, effector. It’s not the wave itself.
• B. Reflex action → automatic, involuntary response (e.g., knee jerk).
• C. Nerve impulse → correct term for the electrochemical wave.
• D. Influx → refers to entry of ions (like Na⁺ influx), part of the process but not the whole wave.
Correct Answer: C. Nerve impulse
A nerve impulse is the traveling wave of depolarization and repolarization along the neuron membrane, allowing transmission of information. -
Question 40 of 180
40. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyGenotype Tt for height. What conclusion?
Correct
Explanation: B
1. Genotype Tt meaning:
• T = dominant allele (tallness).
• t = recessive allele (shortness).
• Together, Tt shows the organism is heterozygous for the height gene.
2. Check options:
A. Allele has at least 2 genes (Wrong). An allele is a version of a single gene, not multiple genes.
B. There are at least two different alleles of the gene (Correct). The genotype shows that the height gene exists in two forms: T and t.
C. Two different genes for height (Wrong). Only one gene for height, but it has two alleles.
D. One allele with 2 forms Slightly misleading. It’s the gene that has two forms (alleles), not the allele itself.
Correct Answer: B. There are at least two different alleles of the gene
Genotype Tt proves that the height gene exists in more than one form (alleles). The capital T (dominant) codes for tallness, and small t (recessive) codes for shortness. Having Tt shows heterozygosity → two different alleles for the same gene.Incorrect
Explanation: B
1. Genotype Tt meaning:
• T = dominant allele (tallness).
• t = recessive allele (shortness).
• Together, Tt shows the organism is heterozygous for the height gene.
2. Check options:
A. Allele has at least 2 genes (Wrong). An allele is a version of a single gene, not multiple genes.
B. There are at least two different alleles of the gene (Correct). The genotype shows that the height gene exists in two forms: T and t.
C. Two different genes for height (Wrong). Only one gene for height, but it has two alleles.
D. One allele with 2 forms Slightly misleading. It’s the gene that has two forms (alleles), not the allele itself.
Correct Answer: B. There are at least two different alleles of the gene
Genotype Tt proves that the height gene exists in more than one form (alleles). The capital T (dominant) codes for tallness, and small t (recessive) codes for shortness. Having Tt shows heterozygosity → two different alleles for the same gene. -
Question 41 of 180
41. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyCompared with days before ovulation, which hormone increases 3 days after ovulation?
Correct
Explanation: D
1. Ovulation timing: occurs around day 14 of a 28-day cycle, triggered by the LH surge.
2. After ovulation (luteal phase):
• The ruptured follicle transforms into the corpus luteum.
• The corpus luteum secretes large amounts of progesterone and some oestrogen.
• Progesterone prepares the endometrium for possible implantation.
3. Check options:
A. FSH Highest before ovulation to stimulate follicle growth, then decreases.
B. LH Surge occurs at ovulation, then drops quickly.
C. Oestrogen Peaks before ovulation, then shows only a slight rise again, not the main hormone after ovulation.
D. Progesterone This is the hormone that increases significantly after ovulation.
Correct Answer: D. Progesterone
Three days after ovulation (early luteal phase), progesterone levels rise sharply due to secretion from the corpus luteum. This differentiates the luteal phase from the follicular phase.Incorrect
Explanation: D
1. Ovulation timing: occurs around day 14 of a 28-day cycle, triggered by the LH surge.
2. After ovulation (luteal phase):
• The ruptured follicle transforms into the corpus luteum.
• The corpus luteum secretes large amounts of progesterone and some oestrogen.
• Progesterone prepares the endometrium for possible implantation.
3. Check options:
A. FSH Highest before ovulation to stimulate follicle growth, then decreases.
B. LH Surge occurs at ovulation, then drops quickly.
C. Oestrogen Peaks before ovulation, then shows only a slight rise again, not the main hormone after ovulation.
D. Progesterone This is the hormone that increases significantly after ovulation.
Correct Answer: D. Progesterone
Three days after ovulation (early luteal phase), progesterone levels rise sharply due to secretion from the corpus luteum. This differentiates the luteal phase from the follicular phase. -
Question 42 of 180
42. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyAccording to Darwin, evolution occurs as a result of _____________.
Correct
Explanation: B
1. Darwin’s theory of evolution (1859, On the Origin of Species):
• Populations show variation.
• More offspring are produced than can survive (struggle for existence).
• Individuals with favorable traits survive and reproduce more.
• Over generations, these advantageous traits become common.
• This process = natural selection.
2. Check options:
A. Mutation in genes → Mutations create variation, but Darwin did not know about genes or mutations.
B. Natural selection → Darwin’s main principle.
C. Use and disuse of organs → This was Lamarck’s theory, not Darwin’s.
D. Inheritance of acquired characteristics → Also Lamarck’s idea (e.g., giraffes stretching necks).
Correct Answer: B. Natural selection.Incorrect
Explanation: B
1. Darwin’s theory of evolution (1859, On the Origin of Species):
• Populations show variation.
• More offspring are produced than can survive (struggle for existence).
• Individuals with favorable traits survive and reproduce more.
• Over generations, these advantageous traits become common.
• This process = natural selection.
2. Check options:
A. Mutation in genes → Mutations create variation, but Darwin did not know about genes or mutations.
B. Natural selection → Darwin’s main principle.
C. Use and disuse of organs → This was Lamarck’s theory, not Darwin’s.
D. Inheritance of acquired characteristics → Also Lamarck’s idea (e.g., giraffes stretching necks).
Correct Answer: B. Natural selection. -
Question 43 of 180
43. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyIn Morgan’s experiment, a cross between a grey-bodied, normal-winged fly and a black-bodied, vestigial-winged fly produced mostly parental offspring. This suggests that:
Correct
Explanation: C
Since most offspring resemble parental types but some recombinants appear, the genes are partially linkedIncorrect
Explanation: C
Since most offspring resemble parental types but some recombinants appear, the genes are partially linked -
Question 44 of 180
44. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyIf a nerve impulse is sent to contract the biceps muscle, what will be the effect?
Correct
Explanation: A
1. Biceps muscle action:
• The biceps brachii is a flexor muscle of the upper arm.
• When it contracts, it pulls the radius bone upwards at the elbow joint.
• This causes the forearm to bend toward the upper arm (flexion at the elbow).
2. Check options:
A. Arm bends → Correct, contraction of biceps = flexion.
B. Arm straightens → Straightening (extension) is caused by the triceps muscle, not biceps.
C. Arm rotates → Rotation involves shoulder joint muscles (like deltoid, rotator cuff).
D. Nothing happens → Wrong, contraction of biceps definitely produces movement.
Correct Answer: A. Arm bends.Incorrect
Explanation: A
1. Biceps muscle action:
• The biceps brachii is a flexor muscle of the upper arm.
• When it contracts, it pulls the radius bone upwards at the elbow joint.
• This causes the forearm to bend toward the upper arm (flexion at the elbow).
2. Check options:
A. Arm bends → Correct, contraction of biceps = flexion.
B. Arm straightens → Straightening (extension) is caused by the triceps muscle, not biceps.
C. Arm rotates → Rotation involves shoulder joint muscles (like deltoid, rotator cuff).
D. Nothing happens → Wrong, contraction of biceps definitely produces movement.
Correct Answer: A. Arm bends. -
Question 45 of 180
45. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe main aim of biotechnology in vaccine production is to:
Correct
Explanation: B
Recombinant DNA technology produces vaccines containing harmless antigenic proteins rather than entire microbes.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Recombinant DNA technology produces vaccines containing harmless antigenic proteins rather than entire microbes. -
Question 46 of 180
46. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe pH of blood is maintained at approximately:
Correct
Explanation: C
The blood has a slightly basic pH, maintained by buffer systems like bicarbonate buffer.Incorrect
Explanation: C
The blood has a slightly basic pH, maintained by buffer systems like bicarbonate buffer. -
Question 47 of 180
47. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe type of nerve impulse in a non-myelinated neuron is:
Correct
Explanation: A
1. Impulse conduction in neurons:
• Myelinated neurons: Have myelin sheath → impulse “jumps” from node to node = saltatory conduction (fast).
• Non-myelinated neurons: Lack myelin sheath → impulse moves step by step along the entire membrane = continuous conduction (slower).
2. Check options:
• A. Continuous (Correct) → conduction is continuous along the axon.
• B. Stationary → impulse never stays still; it propagates.
• C. Electrical → impulse is electrochemical, not purely electrical.
• D. All of them → since only A is correct.
Correct Answer: A. Continuous
In non-myelinated neurons, the action potential spreads continuously along the membrane because there are no myelin gaps (nodes of Ranvier) to speed up conduction.Incorrect
Explanation: A
1. Impulse conduction in neurons:
• Myelinated neurons: Have myelin sheath → impulse “jumps” from node to node = saltatory conduction (fast).
• Non-myelinated neurons: Lack myelin sheath → impulse moves step by step along the entire membrane = continuous conduction (slower).
2. Check options:
• A. Continuous (Correct) → conduction is continuous along the axon.
• B. Stationary → impulse never stays still; it propagates.
• C. Electrical → impulse is electrochemical, not purely electrical.
• D. All of them → since only A is correct.
Correct Answer: A. Continuous
In non-myelinated neurons, the action potential spreads continuously along the membrane because there are no myelin gaps (nodes of Ranvier) to speed up conduction. -
Question 48 of 180
48. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyCausative organism of syphilis?
Correct
Explanation: A
1. Syphilis → a sexually transmitted disease (STD) caused by a spirochete bacterium.
• The bacterium is Treponema pallidum.
2. Check options:
A. Treponema pallidum Correct.
B. Mycoplasma pneumoniae Causes atypical pneumonia.
C. Plasmodium Protozoan causing malaria.
D. Vibrio cholerae Bacterium causing cholera.
Correct Answer: A. Treponema pallidum
Syphilis is caused by the spirochete bacterium Treponema pallidum, transmitted mainly through sexual contact, from mother to fetus (congenital syphilis), or less commonly through blood transfusion.Incorrect
Explanation: A
1. Syphilis → a sexually transmitted disease (STD) caused by a spirochete bacterium.
• The bacterium is Treponema pallidum.
2. Check options:
A. Treponema pallidum Correct.
B. Mycoplasma pneumoniae Causes atypical pneumonia.
C. Plasmodium Protozoan causing malaria.
D. Vibrio cholerae Bacterium causing cholera.
Correct Answer: A. Treponema pallidum
Syphilis is caused by the spirochete bacterium Treponema pallidum, transmitted mainly through sexual contact, from mother to fetus (congenital syphilis), or less commonly through blood transfusion. -
Question 49 of 180
49. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe acrosome of a sperm is derived from which organelle?
Correct
Explanation: A
The acrosome originates from the Golgi complex and contains hyaluronidase and acrosin enzymes to penetrate the ovumIncorrect
Explanation: A
The acrosome originates from the Golgi complex and contains hyaluronidase and acrosin enzymes to penetrate the ovum -
Question 50 of 180
50. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyAccording to Lamarck, the cause of adaptation was:
Correct
Explanation: B
Lamarck proposed that environmental needs cause changes in organ use; these acquired traits are passed on.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Lamarck proposed that environmental needs cause changes in organ use; these acquired traits are passed on. -
Question 51 of 180
51. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe diameter of a myofibril is approximately:
Correct
Explanation: B
Each muscle fiber contains numerous myofibrils, and each myofibril has a diameter of about 1–2 micrometers (µm)Incorrect
Explanation: B
Each muscle fiber contains numerous myofibrils, and each myofibril has a diameter of about 1–2 micrometers (µm) -
Question 52 of 180
52. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe principle of vaccination relies on:
Correct
Explanation: B
Vaccines stimulate adaptive immunity, causing memory cells to form for long-term protectionIncorrect
Explanation: B
Vaccines stimulate adaptive immunity, causing memory cells to form for long-term protection -
Question 53 of 180
53. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe respiratory system gives the basic ability to:
A. Smell
B. Breathe
C. Give out CO2
D. Giving out CO2Correct
Explanation: B
1. Main function of the respiratory system:
• Exchange of gases → oxygen in, carbon dioxide out.
• This process is fundamentally breathing (ventilation + gas exchange).
2. Check options:
• A. Smell → Olfactory function of the nose, not the basic ability of the respiratory system.
• B. Breathe → This is the most direct, fundamental ability provided by the respiratory system.
• C. Give out CO2 → Correct but secondary; it is part of breathing.
• D. Giving out CO2 → Same as C, but less precise wording.
Correct Answer: B. Breathe
The respiratory system’s basic ability is to breathe, which includes both oxygen intake and carbon dioxide removal. Smelling is an associated function, and CO2 exhalation is part of the process, but the primary ability is breathing.Incorrect
Explanation: B
1. Main function of the respiratory system:
• Exchange of gases → oxygen in, carbon dioxide out.
• This process is fundamentally breathing (ventilation + gas exchange).
2. Check options:
• A. Smell → Olfactory function of the nose, not the basic ability of the respiratory system.
• B. Breathe → This is the most direct, fundamental ability provided by the respiratory system.
• C. Give out CO2 → Correct but secondary; it is part of breathing.
• D. Giving out CO2 → Same as C, but less precise wording.
Correct Answer: B. Breathe
The respiratory system’s basic ability is to breathe, which includes both oxygen intake and carbon dioxide removal. Smelling is an associated function, and CO2 exhalation is part of the process, but the primary ability is breathing. -
Question 54 of 180
54. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyInsulin is manufactured commercially using genetic engineering. Which organism is used?
Correct
Explanation: B
1. Background:
• Before genetic engineering, diabetic patients were treated with animal insulin (from pigs or cattle).
• This caused some allergic reactions and was expensive.
2. Modern method:
• Scientists introduced the human insulin gene into plasmids (circular DNA) of E. coli bacteria using recombinant DNA technology.
• The bacteria multiply rapidly, producing large amounts of human insulin.
• The insulin is then extracted and purified for medical use.
3. Check options:
A. Viruses → Not used in commercial insulin production.
B. Bacteria (E. coli) Correct → main organism used in recombinant DNA technology for insulin.
C. Fungi → Some fungi are used for producing antibiotics (e.g., Penicillium), but not insulin.
D. Animals → Earlier source, but not modern genetic engineering method.
Correct Answer: B. Bacteria (E. coli)
In genetic engineering, the human insulin gene is inserted into a bacterial plasmid, and this recombinant plasmid is introduced into E. coli. As the bacteria multiply, they produce human insulin, which is harvested, purified, and sold under names like Humulin. This method provides a safe, cheap, and allergy-free source of insulin for diabetic patients.Incorrect
Explanation: B
1. Background:
• Before genetic engineering, diabetic patients were treated with animal insulin (from pigs or cattle).
• This caused some allergic reactions and was expensive.
2. Modern method:
• Scientists introduced the human insulin gene into plasmids (circular DNA) of E. coli bacteria using recombinant DNA technology.
• The bacteria multiply rapidly, producing large amounts of human insulin.
• The insulin is then extracted and purified for medical use.
3. Check options:
A. Viruses → Not used in commercial insulin production.
B. Bacteria (E. coli) Correct → main organism used in recombinant DNA technology for insulin.
C. Fungi → Some fungi are used for producing antibiotics (e.g., Penicillium), but not insulin.
D. Animals → Earlier source, but not modern genetic engineering method.
Correct Answer: B. Bacteria (E. coli)
In genetic engineering, the human insulin gene is inserted into a bacterial plasmid, and this recombinant plasmid is introduced into E. coli. As the bacteria multiply, they produce human insulin, which is harvested, purified, and sold under names like Humulin. This method provides a safe, cheap, and allergy-free source of insulin for diabetic patients. -
Question 55 of 180
55. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyAbout 23% of carbon dioxide in blood is carried:
A. As bicarbonate ions in plasma
B. As dissolved CO2 in plasma
C. As carbamino haemoglobin
D. As carboxy haemoglobinCorrect
Explanation: C
CO2 binds with the globin part of haemoglobin to form carbamino haemoglobin (HbCO2), which carries around 23% of CO2.Incorrect
Explanation: C
CO2 binds with the globin part of haemoglobin to form carbamino haemoglobin (HbCO2), which carries around 23% of CO2. -
Question 56 of 180
56. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich event would most likely occur if FSH receptors on Sertoli cells become non-functional?
Correct
Explanation: C
FSH acts on Sertoli cells to support spermatogenesis. Without their activation, developing sperm lose nourishment despite normal testosterone levels from Leydig cells.Incorrect
Explanation: C
FSH acts on Sertoli cells to support spermatogenesis. Without their activation, developing sperm lose nourishment despite normal testosterone levels from Leydig cells. -
Question 57 of 180
57. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyLamarck’s theory fails because:
Correct
Explanation: A
Acquired traits affect somatic cells only; germline DNA remains unchanged, so they’re not heritable.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Acquired traits affect somatic cells only; germline DNA remains unchanged, so they’re not heritable. -
Question 58 of 180
58. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich statement best contrasts bone and cartilage at the tissue level?
Correct
Explanation: C
Bone matrix is mineralized with hydroxyapatite; cartilage matrix is firm/elastic but non-mineralized. Cartilage is largely avascular; bone is vascular.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Bone matrix is mineralized with hydroxyapatite; cartilage matrix is firm/elastic but non-mineralized. Cartilage is largely avascular; bone is vascular. -
Question 59 of 180
59. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyA DNA probe is used to:
Correct
Explanation: B
DNA probes are labeled sequences that hybridize with complementary nucleic acids for pathogen identification.Incorrect
Explanation: B
DNA probes are labeled sequences that hybridize with complementary nucleic acids for pathogen identification. -
Question 60 of 180
60. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe bronchioles are located at the end of bronchi and terminate in:
Correct
Explanation: D
1. Pathway of air in humans:
Trachea → Primary bronchi → Secondary bronchi → Tertiary bronchi → Bronchioles → Alveolar ducts → Alveolar sacs → Alveoli.
2. Alveoli are the tiny air sacs where gas exchange occurs.
3. Alveolar sacs are clusters (bunches) of alveoli at the ends of bronchioles.
4. So, bronchioles don’t end directly in a single alveolus but in alveolar sacs made up of many alveoli.
Correct Answer: D. Both B and C
Bronchioles terminate in alveolar sacs, which consist of clusters of alveoli. These alveoli are the true sites of gaseous exchange in the lungs.Incorrect
Explanation: D
1. Pathway of air in humans:
Trachea → Primary bronchi → Secondary bronchi → Tertiary bronchi → Bronchioles → Alveolar ducts → Alveolar sacs → Alveoli.
2. Alveoli are the tiny air sacs where gas exchange occurs.
3. Alveolar sacs are clusters (bunches) of alveoli at the ends of bronchioles.
4. So, bronchioles don’t end directly in a single alveolus but in alveolar sacs made up of many alveoli.
Correct Answer: D. Both B and C
Bronchioles terminate in alveolar sacs, which consist of clusters of alveoli. These alveoli are the true sites of gaseous exchange in the lungs. -
Question 61 of 180
61. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich structures are involved in controlling body temperature?
Correct
Explanation: B
1. Thermoregulation in humans:
• Hypothalamus → the control center for temperature (“body’s thermostat”).
• Blood vessels (in skin) → vasodilation releases heat, vasoconstriction conserves heat.
• Sweat glands → sweating removes heat through evaporation.
• Skeletal muscles → shivering generates heat when body is cold.
2. Check options:
• A. Blood vessels + cerebellum + sweat glands Cerebellum controls coordination of movement, not temperature.
• B. Blood vessels + hypothalamus + skeletal muscles Correct → all three play a direct role in thermoregulation.
• C. Kidneys + cerebellum + sweat glands Kidneys regulate excretion and water balance, not body temperature.
• D. Kidneys + hypothalamus + skeletal muscles Kidneys not involved in temperature control.
Correct Answer: B. Blood vessels + hypothalamus + skeletal muscles
The hypothalamus detects temperature changes, blood vessels and sweat glands regulate heat loss, and skeletal muscles produce heat through shivering. This integrated system maintains homeostasis of body temperature.Incorrect
Explanation: B
1. Thermoregulation in humans:
• Hypothalamus → the control center for temperature (“body’s thermostat”).
• Blood vessels (in skin) → vasodilation releases heat, vasoconstriction conserves heat.
• Sweat glands → sweating removes heat through evaporation.
• Skeletal muscles → shivering generates heat when body is cold.
2. Check options:
• A. Blood vessels + cerebellum + sweat glands Cerebellum controls coordination of movement, not temperature.
• B. Blood vessels + hypothalamus + skeletal muscles Correct → all three play a direct role in thermoregulation.
• C. Kidneys + cerebellum + sweat glands Kidneys regulate excretion and water balance, not body temperature.
• D. Kidneys + hypothalamus + skeletal muscles Kidneys not involved in temperature control.
Correct Answer: B. Blood vessels + hypothalamus + skeletal muscles
The hypothalamus detects temperature changes, blood vessels and sweat glands regulate heat loss, and skeletal muscles produce heat through shivering. This integrated system maintains homeostasis of body temperature. -
Question 62 of 180
62. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyA farmer uses sperm from a black male sheep to artificially inseminate (fertilize) 20 light brown female sheep. All of the offsprings produced were black. Which statement explains these results?
Correct
Explanation: C
1. Set symbols: Let B = allele for black coat, b = allele for light brown coat.
We are told all 20 offspring are black.
2. Dominance from the result:
If black appears in every lamb, black must be dominant over light brown. (If black were recessive, mating a black male with light-brown females would produce many light-brown lambs, not all black.)
3. Genotypes of the parents:
• Light brown females must be bb (recessive phenotype).
• For every lamb to be black, the black male must contribute a B to each offspring → the male must be BB (homozygous dominant).
4. Punnett square (BB × bb):

All offspring are Bb (black phenotype).
5. Why not heterozygous male (Bb)?
Bb (male) × bb (female) would give 50% Bb (black) and 50% bb (light brown)—not all black. (Getting 20/20 black from this cross would be extremely unlikely.)
Conclusion: The observation (“all offspring black”) is explained only if black is dominant and the male is homozygous (BB) → Option C.Incorrect
Explanation: C
1. Set symbols: Let B = allele for black coat, b = allele for light brown coat.
We are told all 20 offspring are black.
2. Dominance from the result:
If black appears in every lamb, black must be dominant over light brown. (If black were recessive, mating a black male with light-brown females would produce many light-brown lambs, not all black.)
3. Genotypes of the parents:
• Light brown females must be bb (recessive phenotype).
• For every lamb to be black, the black male must contribute a B to each offspring → the male must be BB (homozygous dominant).
4. Punnett square (BB × bb):

All offspring are Bb (black phenotype).
5. Why not heterozygous male (Bb)?
Bb (male) × bb (female) would give 50% Bb (black) and 50% bb (light brown)—not all black. (Getting 20/20 black from this cross would be extremely unlikely.)
Conclusion: The observation (“all offspring black”) is explained only if black is dominant and the male is homozygous (BB) → Option C. -
Question 63 of 180
63. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyIf both seminal vesicles are removed, the resulting semen will:
Correct
Explanation: B
Seminal vesicles contribute ~60% of semen, adding fructose (for sperm energy) and prostaglandins. Removal reduces volume and energy supply but sperm production continues.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Seminal vesicles contribute ~60% of semen, adding fructose (for sperm energy) and prostaglandins. Removal reduces volume and energy supply but sperm production continues. -
Question 64 of 180
64. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyAccording to Darwin, overproduction of offspring leads to:
Correct
Explanation: B
Excess offspring create struggle for existence; only better-adapted individuals survive.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Excess offspring create struggle for existence; only better-adapted individuals survive. -
Question 65 of 180
65. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich feature is shared by all three muscle types?
Correct
Explanation: B
Actin–myosin filaments underlie contraction in skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscles. Multinucleation and voluntary control are not universal; intercalated discs are cardiac only.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Actin–myosin filaments underlie contraction in skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscles. Multinucleation and voluntary control are not universal; intercalated discs are cardiac only. -
Question 66 of 180
66. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyMonoclonal antibodies are produced by:
Correct
Explanation: B
Hybridoma technology fuses antibody-producing B cells with immortal myeloma cells to create monoclonal antibodies.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Hybridoma technology fuses antibody-producing B cells with immortal myeloma cells to create monoclonal antibodies. -
Question 67 of 180
67. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich process does not depend on respiration?
Correct
Explanation: A
1. Respiration’s role:
• Cellular respiration provides ATP, the energy source for processes that need energy.
• Processes that require ATP → depend on respiration.
• Processes that do not need ATP (passive) → do not depend on respiration.
2. Option A: Diffusion of glucose
• Diffusion is a passive process (down a concentration gradient).
• No ATP is required.
• Does not depend on respiration.
3. Option B: Active uptake of ions
• “Active” = energy required (ATP from respiration).
• Depends on respiration.
4. Option C: Conduction of nerve impulses
• Nerve impulses rely on active transport (Na⁺/K⁺ pump) to restore ionic gradients.
• Requires ATP → depends on respiration.
5. Option D: Muscle contraction
• Contraction requires ATP for actin-myosin interaction and calcium ion pumps.
• Depends on respiration.
Correct Answer: A. Diffusion of glucose.Incorrect
Explanation: A
1. Respiration’s role:
• Cellular respiration provides ATP, the energy source for processes that need energy.
• Processes that require ATP → depend on respiration.
• Processes that do not need ATP (passive) → do not depend on respiration.
2. Option A: Diffusion of glucose
• Diffusion is a passive process (down a concentration gradient).
• No ATP is required.
• Does not depend on respiration.
3. Option B: Active uptake of ions
• “Active” = energy required (ATP from respiration).
• Depends on respiration.
4. Option C: Conduction of nerve impulses
• Nerve impulses rely on active transport (Na⁺/K⁺ pump) to restore ionic gradients.
• Requires ATP → depends on respiration.
5. Option D: Muscle contraction
• Contraction requires ATP for actin-myosin interaction and calcium ion pumps.
• Depends on respiration.
Correct Answer: A. Diffusion of glucose. -
Question 68 of 180
68. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhat is not directly controlled by the nervous system?
Correct
Explanation: A
1. Role of the nervous system:
• The nervous system directly controls rapid responses such as muscle movement, reflexes, gland secretion, and functions of smooth/cardiac muscle.
2. Option A: Blood glucose concentration
• This is mainly regulated by hormones (insulin and glucagon from the pancreas).
• Not under direct nervous system control.
3. Option B: Dilation of blood vessels
• Controlled by the autonomic nervous system (sympathetic/parasympathetic) acting on smooth muscle in vessel walls.
4. Option C: Heart rate
• Directly controlled by the autonomic nervous system via the sinoatrial (SA) node.
5. Option D: Pupil diameter in the eye
• Controlled by the autonomic nervous system (sympathetic → dilation, parasympathetic → constriction).
Correct Answer: A. Blood glucose concentration.Incorrect
Explanation: A
1. Role of the nervous system:
• The nervous system directly controls rapid responses such as muscle movement, reflexes, gland secretion, and functions of smooth/cardiac muscle.
2. Option A: Blood glucose concentration
• This is mainly regulated by hormones (insulin and glucagon from the pancreas).
• Not under direct nervous system control.
3. Option B: Dilation of blood vessels
• Controlled by the autonomic nervous system (sympathetic/parasympathetic) acting on smooth muscle in vessel walls.
4. Option C: Heart rate
• Directly controlled by the autonomic nervous system via the sinoatrial (SA) node.
5. Option D: Pupil diameter in the eye
• Controlled by the autonomic nervous system (sympathetic → dilation, parasympathetic → constriction).
Correct Answer: A. Blood glucose concentration. -
Question 69 of 180
69. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhat is a result of natural selection?
Correct
Explanation: C
1. Definition of natural selection:
• Natural selection is the process by which individuals with advantageous traits (that improve survival or reproduction) are more likely to survive and pass on those traits to the next generation.
• It is not directed by humans; it happens due to environmental pressures.
2. Look at the options:
• A. Dogs that are friendly to humans → This is due to artificial selection (selective breeding) by humans, not natural selection.
• B. Grapes that contain no seeds → Also a result of artificial selection or genetic modification, not natural selection.
• C. Mosquitoes resistant to insecticides → This is natural selection:
• Some mosquitoes randomly have mutations that make them resistant.
• When insecticides are sprayed, most mosquitoes die, but resistant ones survive.
• Survivors reproduce, passing resistance genes to the next generation.
• Over time, the population becomes resistant.
• D. Onion crops with pleasant taste → Again, this is due to human-controlled breeding, not natural selection.
Correct Answer: C. Mosquitoes that are resistant to insecticidesIncorrect
Explanation: C
1. Definition of natural selection:
• Natural selection is the process by which individuals with advantageous traits (that improve survival or reproduction) are more likely to survive and pass on those traits to the next generation.
• It is not directed by humans; it happens due to environmental pressures.
2. Look at the options:
• A. Dogs that are friendly to humans → This is due to artificial selection (selective breeding) by humans, not natural selection.
• B. Grapes that contain no seeds → Also a result of artificial selection or genetic modification, not natural selection.
• C. Mosquitoes resistant to insecticides → This is natural selection:
• Some mosquitoes randomly have mutations that make them resistant.
• When insecticides are sprayed, most mosquitoes die, but resistant ones survive.
• Survivors reproduce, passing resistance genes to the next generation.
• Over time, the population becomes resistant.
• D. Onion crops with pleasant taste → Again, this is due to human-controlled breeding, not natural selection.
Correct Answer: C. Mosquitoes that are resistant to insecticides -
Question 70 of 180
70. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhy do sperms have mitochondria arranged helically around the middle piece?
Correct
Explanation: A
The middle piece supplies energy (ATP) to power flagellar movement for motility; the acrosome releases enzymes for ovum penetration.Incorrect
Explanation: A
The middle piece supplies energy (ATP) to power flagellar movement for motility; the acrosome releases enzymes for ovum penetration. -
Question 71 of 180
71. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich of the following provides modern molecular evidence supporting Darwin’s theory?
Correct
Explanation: B
Genetic similarity reflects common ancestry; closer DNA sequences imply evolutionary relationships.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Genetic similarity reflects common ancestry; closer DNA sequences imply evolutionary relationships. -
Question 72 of 180
72. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich cell type directly initiates bone resorption?
Correct
Explanation: C
Osteoclasts (multinucleate) dissolve mineral and matrix; osteoblasts form bone; osteocytes maintain matrix.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Osteoclasts (multinucleate) dissolve mineral and matrix; osteoblasts form bone; osteocytes maintain matrix. -
Question 73 of 180
73. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyMonoclonal antibodies are monospecific, meaning they:
Correct
Explanation: B
They are uniform antibodies binding to a single specific antigenic siteIncorrect
Explanation: B
They are uniform antibodies binding to a single specific antigenic site -
Question 74 of 180
74. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhat are the responses to decreased body temperature?
Correct
Explanation: C
1. When body temperature drops:
• The hypothalamus activates mechanisms to generate and conserve heat.
2. Responses:
• Shivering: Rapid, involuntary muscle contractions that produce heat through respiration.
• Vasoconstriction (of skin blood vessels): Narrowing of blood vessels near the skin surface reduces blood flow → less heat lost to the environment.
3. Why not the other options?
A. Shivering + vasodilation → Vasodilation increases heat loss, which would worsen cooling.
B. Sweating + vasoconstriction → Sweating reduces body temperature, not correct in cold conditions.
D. Sweating + vasodilation → Both are mechanisms for cooling, not warming.
Correct Answer: C. Shivering and vasoconstriction in blood vessels near the skin surface.Incorrect
Explanation: C
1. When body temperature drops:
• The hypothalamus activates mechanisms to generate and conserve heat.
2. Responses:
• Shivering: Rapid, involuntary muscle contractions that produce heat through respiration.
• Vasoconstriction (of skin blood vessels): Narrowing of blood vessels near the skin surface reduces blood flow → less heat lost to the environment.
3. Why not the other options?
A. Shivering + vasodilation → Vasodilation increases heat loss, which would worsen cooling.
B. Sweating + vasoconstriction → Sweating reduces body temperature, not correct in cold conditions.
D. Sweating + vasodilation → Both are mechanisms for cooling, not warming.
Correct Answer: C. Shivering and vasoconstriction in blood vessels near the skin surface. -
Question 75 of 180
75. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich statement about dominant and recessive alleles is not correct?
Correct
Explanation: D
1. Option A:
• “A dominant characteristic is seen in phenotype of a heterozygote” → Correct.
• Example: In pea plants, Tt (tall) shows the dominant trait “tall”.
2. Option B:
• “A homozygous genotype may be either dominant or recessive” → Correct.
• Example: TT (homozygous dominant) or tt (homozygous recessive).
3. Option C:
• “Recessive phenotypes always have two recessive alleles” → Correct.
• Example: Short pea plants = tt only.
4. Option D:
• “The phenotype of a homozygote is always dominant” → Incorrect.
• Because a homozygote can be dominant (TT → tall) or recessive (tt → short).
• So the phenotype of a homozygote is not always dominant.
Correct Answer: D. The phenotype of a homozygote is always dominant.Incorrect
Explanation: D
1. Option A:
• “A dominant characteristic is seen in phenotype of a heterozygote” → Correct.
• Example: In pea plants, Tt (tall) shows the dominant trait “tall”.
2. Option B:
• “A homozygous genotype may be either dominant or recessive” → Correct.
• Example: TT (homozygous dominant) or tt (homozygous recessive).
3. Option C:
• “Recessive phenotypes always have two recessive alleles” → Correct.
• Example: Short pea plants = tt only.
4. Option D:
• “The phenotype of a homozygote is always dominant” → Incorrect.
• Because a homozygote can be dominant (TT → tall) or recessive (tt → short).
• So the phenotype of a homozygote is not always dominant.
Correct Answer: D. The phenotype of a homozygote is always dominant. -
Question 76 of 180
76. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe fallopian tube plays a dual role by:
Correct
Explanation: B
The oviduct conveys the ovum from the ovary and provides the ampulla site for fertilization before zygote moves to the uterus.Incorrect
Explanation: B
The oviduct conveys the ovum from the ovary and provides the ampulla site for fertilization before zygote moves to the uterus. -
Question 77 of 180
77. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyCSF is found:
Correct
Explanation: C
CSF fills the subarachnoid space (between pia and arachnoid mater), ventricles of the brain, and central canal of spinal cord.Incorrect
Explanation: C
CSF fills the subarachnoid space (between pia and arachnoid mater), ventricles of the brain, and central canal of spinal cord. -
Question 78 of 180
78. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich combination correctly matches structure and control?
Correct
Explanation: B
Cardiac muscle is striated, involuntary, has intercalated discs, and is myogenicIncorrect
Explanation: B
Cardiac muscle is striated, involuntary, has intercalated discs, and is myogenic -
Question 79 of 180
79. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich of the following is a biotechnological product used to treat hemophilia?
Correct
Explanation: B
Recombinant Factor VIII restores clotting ability in hemophilia A patient.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Recombinant Factor VIII restores clotting ability in hemophilia A patient. -
Question 80 of 180
80. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhen the water level in the blood decreases, the kidneys produce more concentrated urine to restore the normal water balance. Why is this process considered a negative feedback system?
Correct
Explanation: D
1. What is negative feedback?
• A control mechanism where a change in a condition triggers a response that reverses (negates) that change, keeping conditions stable (homeostasis).
2. In this case (osmoregulation):
• If water in blood falls → hypothalamus detects high solute concentration → pituitary releases more ADH.
• ADH makes kidneys reabsorb more water → urine becomes more concentrated (less water lost).
• This restores blood water concentration back to normal.
3. Why is it negative feedback?
• Because the body reverses the initial change (low blood water → response increases blood water again).
4. Check options:
A. It decreases the amount of water in blood → Wrong, it restores it.
B. It increases any change → That describes positive feedback, not negative.
C. It increases the amount of water in the blood → Incomplete; it doesn’t always “increase,” it restores balance.
D. It reverses any change in the amount of water in the blood → Correct.
Correct Answer: D. It reverses any change in the amount of water in the blood.Incorrect
Explanation: D
1. What is negative feedback?
• A control mechanism where a change in a condition triggers a response that reverses (negates) that change, keeping conditions stable (homeostasis).
2. In this case (osmoregulation):
• If water in blood falls → hypothalamus detects high solute concentration → pituitary releases more ADH.
• ADH makes kidneys reabsorb more water → urine becomes more concentrated (less water lost).
• This restores blood water concentration back to normal.
3. Why is it negative feedback?
• Because the body reverses the initial change (low blood water → response increases blood water again).
4. Check options:
A. It decreases the amount of water in blood → Wrong, it restores it.
B. It increases any change → That describes positive feedback, not negative.
C. It increases the amount of water in the blood → Incomplete; it doesn’t always “increase,” it restores balance.
D. It reverses any change in the amount of water in the blood → Correct.
Correct Answer: D. It reverses any change in the amount of water in the blood. -
Question 81 of 180
81. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyA female carrier of haemophilia marries a normal male. What is the probability that a son will be haemophiliac?
Correct
Explanation: C
1. Genetic basis of haemophilia:
• Haemophilia is caused by a recessive allele on the X chromosome.
• Symbol:
Xᴴ = normal allele
Xʰ = haemophilia allele
2. Parents’ genotypes:
Female carrier = XᴴXʰ
Normal male = XᴴY
3. Cross (Punnett square):

Result:
• Daughters: 50% normal, 50% carriers (but not diseased).
• Sons: 50% normal, 50% haemophiliac.
5. Answer to question:
• The probability that a son will be haemophiliac = 50%
Correct Answer: C. 50%.Incorrect
Explanation: C
1. Genetic basis of haemophilia:
• Haemophilia is caused by a recessive allele on the X chromosome.
• Symbol:
Xᴴ = normal allele
Xʰ = haemophilia allele
2. Parents’ genotypes:
Female carrier = XᴴXʰ
Normal male = XᴴY
3. Cross (Punnett square):

Result:
• Daughters: 50% normal, 50% carriers (but not diseased).
• Sons: 50% normal, 50% haemophiliac.
5. Answer to question:
• The probability that a son will be haemophiliac = 50%
Correct Answer: C. 50%. -
Question 82 of 180
82. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhat hormonal imbalance most likely causes failure of ovulation?
Correct
Explanation: B
The LH surge is essential for ovulation. If estrogen fails to trigger positive feedback at mid-cycle, no LH peak occurs, preventing follicle rupture.Incorrect
Explanation: B
The LH surge is essential for ovulation. If estrogen fails to trigger positive feedback at mid-cycle, no LH peak occurs, preventing follicle rupture. -
Question 83 of 180
83. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich microorganism causes Gonorrhea?
Correct
Explanation: B
Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a Gram-negative diplococcus that infects mucous membranes of the urethra, cervix, and eyes.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a Gram-negative diplococcus that infects mucous membranes of the urethra, cervix, and eyes. -
Question 84 of 180
84. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyDuring maximal contraction, which region disappears first?
Correct
Explanation: C
Thin filaments slide toward center; H-zone (thick-only region) narrows/disappears; A-band length remains constant.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Thin filaments slide toward center; H-zone (thick-only region) narrows/disappears; A-band length remains constant. -
Question 85 of 180
85. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyA child is frightened by a loud noise, and shouts for help. In which order are the different types of neurons involved in this response?
Correct
Explanation: D
1. Sequence of events:
• The loud noise is detected by receptors in the ear.
• A sensory neuron carries this information as an impulse to the central nervous system (CNS).
• Inside the CNS, the impulse passes to a relay (interneuron), which processes and connects sensory input to the appropriate response pathway.
• The relay neuron transmits the signal to a motor neuron, which carries impulses to muscles (e.g., vocal cords, diaphragm) to make the child shout for help.
2. Check options
A. Motor → relay → sensory wrong order (backwards).
B. Motor → sensory → relay wrong, action doesn’t come before detection.
C. Sensory → motor → relay wrong, relay comes before motor in the CNS.
D. Sensory → relay → motor correct order.
Correct Answer: D. Sensory neuron → relay neuron → motor neuronIncorrect
Explanation: D
1. Sequence of events:
• The loud noise is detected by receptors in the ear.
• A sensory neuron carries this information as an impulse to the central nervous system (CNS).
• Inside the CNS, the impulse passes to a relay (interneuron), which processes and connects sensory input to the appropriate response pathway.
• The relay neuron transmits the signal to a motor neuron, which carries impulses to muscles (e.g., vocal cords, diaphragm) to make the child shout for help.
2. Check options
A. Motor → relay → sensory wrong order (backwards).
B. Motor → sensory → relay wrong, action doesn’t come before detection.
C. Sensory → motor → relay wrong, relay comes before motor in the CNS.
D. Sensory → relay → motor correct order.
Correct Answer: D. Sensory neuron → relay neuron → motor neuron -
Question 86 of 180
86. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhy are females less frequently affected by haemophilia?
Correct
Explanation: C
1. Nature of haemophilia:
• It is an X-linked recessive disorder.
• The faulty gene is carried on the X chromosome.
2. Males (XY):
• If the single X has the defective allele (XʰY), there is no second X to mask it.
→ Males express haemophilia more often.
3. Females (XX):
• For a female to express haemophilia, both X chromosomes must carry the defective allele (XʰXʰ).
• If only one X carries it (XᴴXʰ), the normal allele on the other X masks the effect → female becomes a carrier but not diseased.
4. Check options:
A. The gene is present on autosomes → Wrong, it is on the X chromosome, not autosomes.
B. They have a stronger immune system → Not relevant to genetic inheritance.
C. They require two defective X-chromosomes to express the trait → Correct explanation.
D. Hormonal protection suppresses the gene → Hormones are not involved here.
Correct Answer: C. They require two defective X-chromosomes to express the trait.Incorrect
Explanation: C
1. Nature of haemophilia:
• It is an X-linked recessive disorder.
• The faulty gene is carried on the X chromosome.
2. Males (XY):
• If the single X has the defective allele (XʰY), there is no second X to mask it.
→ Males express haemophilia more often.
3. Females (XX):
• For a female to express haemophilia, both X chromosomes must carry the defective allele (XʰXʰ).
• If only one X carries it (XᴴXʰ), the normal allele on the other X masks the effect → female becomes a carrier but not diseased.
4. Check options:
A. The gene is present on autosomes → Wrong, it is on the X chromosome, not autosomes.
B. They have a stronger immune system → Not relevant to genetic inheritance.
C. They require two defective X-chromosomes to express the trait → Correct explanation.
D. Hormonal protection suppresses the gene → Hormones are not involved here.
Correct Answer: C. They require two defective X-chromosomes to express the trait. -
Question 87 of 180
87. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyCerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is produced from:
Correct
Explanation: B
CSF is formed by diffusion, pinocytosis, and active transport from the blood vessels of brain and spinal cord.Incorrect
Explanation: B
CSF is formed by diffusion, pinocytosis, and active transport from the blood vessels of brain and spinal cord. -
Question 88 of 180
88. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe theory of Uniformitarianism, which states that “the present is the key to the past,” was originally proposed by:
Correct
Explanation: C
James Hutton first proposed the principle of uniformitarianism, suggesting that geological processes operating today also shaped the Earth in the past.Incorrect
Explanation: C
James Hutton first proposed the principle of uniformitarianism, suggesting that geological processes operating today also shaped the Earth in the past. -
Question 89 of 180
89. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyImmediate trigger for cross-bridge binding to actin is:
A. ATP binding to myosin head
B. Ca2+ binding to troponin C displacing tropomyosin
C. Pi release from myosin before Ca2+ rise
D. ADP release from actinCorrect
Explanation: B
Ca2+–troponin C shifts tropomyosin, exposing actin sites; myosin-ATP cycle then proceeds.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Ca2+–troponin C shifts tropomyosin, exposing actin sites; myosin-ATP cycle then proceeds. -
Question 90 of 180
90. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhat is the role of motor neurons in reflex action?
Correct
Explanation: A
1. Reflex arc pathway:
• Receptor detects stimulus (e.g., pain).
• Sensory neuron carries impulse → CNS (spinal cord/brain).
• Relay neuron processes signal inside CNS.
• Motor neuron carries impulse from CNS to an effector (muscle or gland).
• Effector produces response (e.g., muscle contracts).
2. Check the options:
A. Carrying nerve impulses from the central nervous system to an effector → This is the exact function of motor neurons.
B. Connecting a receptor to the central nervous system → That’s the job of sensory neurons.
C. Forming a synapse with a sensory neuron → Relay neurons connect sensory and motor neurons.
D. Transferring energy from the stimulus to a nerve impulse → That’s the role of receptors, not motor neurons.
Correct Answer: A. Carrying nerve impulses from the central nervous system to an effector.Incorrect
Explanation: A
1. Reflex arc pathway:
• Receptor detects stimulus (e.g., pain).
• Sensory neuron carries impulse → CNS (spinal cord/brain).
• Relay neuron processes signal inside CNS.
• Motor neuron carries impulse from CNS to an effector (muscle or gland).
• Effector produces response (e.g., muscle contracts).
2. Check the options:
A. Carrying nerve impulses from the central nervous system to an effector → This is the exact function of motor neurons.
B. Connecting a receptor to the central nervous system → That’s the job of sensory neurons.
C. Forming a synapse with a sensory neuron → Relay neurons connect sensory and motor neurons.
D. Transferring energy from the stimulus to a nerve impulse → That’s the role of receptors, not motor neurons.
Correct Answer: A. Carrying nerve impulses from the central nervous system to an effector. -
Question 91 of 180
91. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyAccording to the law of segregation, each gamete:
Correct
Explanation: B
During meiosis, homologous chromosomes separate, ensuring each gamete carries one allele per gene.Incorrect
Explanation: B
During meiosis, homologous chromosomes separate, ensuring each gamete carries one allele per gene. -
Question 92 of 180
92. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyDuring the menstrual cycle, the hormone responsible for initiating the next cycle after menstruation is:
Correct
Explanation: B
FSH stimulates growth of new follicles at the beginning of each cycle, marking its restart.Incorrect
Explanation: B
FSH stimulates growth of new follicles at the beginning of each cycle, marking its restart. -
Question 93 of 180
93. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe term “Survival of the Fittest” was first used by:
Correct
Explanation: C
The philosopher Herbert Spencer coined the term “Survival of the Fittest” after reading Darwin’s Origin of Species (1859). Darwin later accepted and used the phrase in later editions to describe natural selection.Incorrect
Explanation: C
The philosopher Herbert Spencer coined the term “Survival of the Fittest” after reading Darwin’s Origin of Species (1859). Darwin later accepted and used the phrase in later editions to describe natural selection. -
Question 94 of 180
94. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyRigor mortis is primarily due to:
A. Excess ATP keeping heads detached
B. Lack of ATP preventing cross-bridge detachment
C. Excess Ca2+ pumping
D. Troponin lossCorrect
Explanation: B
Without ATP, myosin heads cannot detach from actin, producing rigidity.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Without ATP, myosin heads cannot detach from actin, producing rigidity. -
Question 95 of 180
95. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyCalling receptors “transducers” means they:
Correct
Explanation: B
Transduction converts stimulus energy into receptor potentials/action potentials.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Transduction converts stimulus energy into receptor potentials/action potentials. -
Question 96 of 180
96. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyA heterozygous tall pea plant (Tt) is self-crossed. The ratio of tall to dwarf plants will be:
Correct
Explanation: B
According to Mendel’s monohybrid cross, phenotypic ratio = 3 tall : 1 dwarf.Incorrect
Explanation: B
According to Mendel’s monohybrid cross, phenotypic ratio = 3 tall : 1 dwarf. -
Question 97 of 180
97. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe approximate length of each fallopian tube in the human female is:
Correct
Explanation: B
Each fallopian tube (also called oviduct) is about 10 cm long, extending from the ovary to the uterus.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Each fallopian tube (also called oviduct) is about 10 cm long, extending from the ovary to the uterus. -
Question 98 of 180
98. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyMendel’s law of dominance explains that:
Correct
Explanation: B
Dominant alleles express their effect in the heterozygous condition, masking the recessive alleleIncorrect
Explanation: B
Dominant alleles express their effect in the heterozygous condition, masking the recessive allele -
Question 99 of 180
99. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich is NOT a component of a typical synovial joint?
Correct
Explanation: C
Synovial cavity contains synovial fluid, not “periosteal lymph.”Incorrect
Explanation: C
Synovial cavity contains synovial fluid, not “periosteal lymph.” -
Question 100 of 180
100. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich receptor is mismatched with its adequate stimulus?
A. Photoreceptor — light
B. Chemoreceptor — pH/CO2
C. Mechanoreceptor — sound/vibration
D. Nociceptor — strong sweetnessCorrect
Explanation: D
Nociceptors respond to damaging stimuli; taste receptors handle sweetnessIncorrect
Explanation: D
Nociceptors respond to damaging stimuli; taste receptors handle sweetness -
Question 101 of 180
101. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyIn a dihybrid cross (RrYy × RrYy), which ratio is expected in the F₂ generation?
Correct
Explanation: B
The 9:3:3:1 ratio demonstrates independent assortment of two gene pairs during gamete formation.Incorrect
Explanation: B
The 9:3:3:1 ratio demonstrates independent assortment of two gene pairs during gamete formation. -
Question 102 of 180
102. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe incubation period of syphilis is approximately:
Correct
Explanation: B
After infection by Treponema pallidum, the first symptom (chancre) appears after an incubation period of 2–4 weeks.Incorrect
Explanation: B
After infection by Treponema pallidum, the first symptom (chancre) appears after an incubation period of 2–4 weeks. -
Question 103 of 180
103. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyArthritis most directly refers to:
Correct
Explanation: B
Arthritis = joint inflammation, often with pain, stiffness, swelling, reduced motion.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Arthritis = joint inflammation, often with pain, stiffness, swelling, reduced motion. -
Question 104 of 180
104. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyMyelin primarily increases conduction velocity by:
Correct
Explanation: C
Myelin insulates (↑Rm, ↓Cm), enabling saltatory conduction between nodes.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Myelin insulates (↑Rm, ↓Cm), enabling saltatory conduction between nodes. -
Question 105 of 180
105. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyTwo genes located close together on the same chromosome tend to:
Correct
Explanation: B
Linked genes are transmitted together because they are physically close and rarely separated by crossing over.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Linked genes are transmitted together because they are physically close and rarely separated by crossing over. -
Question 106 of 180
106. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyNissl bodies in neurons are:
Correct
Explanation: B
Nissl substance synthesizes proteins (RER + ribosomes).Incorrect
Explanation: B
Nissl substance synthesizes proteins (RER + ribosomes). -
Question 107 of 180
107. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe occurrence of new genetic combinations due to exchange of chromosome segments is called:
Correct
Explanation: B
Crossing over occurs during prophase I of meiosis, exchanging segments between homologous chromosomesIncorrect
Explanation: B
Crossing over occurs during prophase I of meiosis, exchanging segments between homologous chromosomes -
Question 108 of 180
108. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyResting membrane potential primarily results from:
A. Equal Na+ and K+ permeability
B. Greater K+ leak out via leak channels and Na+/K+ pump
C. Only Cl⁻ equilibrium
D. Ca2+ binding to channelsCorrect
Explanation: B
High K+ permeability and Na+/K+ ATPase establish negativity inside.Incorrect
Explanation: B
High K+ permeability and Na+/K+ ATPase establish negativity inside. -
Question 109 of 180
109. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe strength of linkage between two genes is:
Correct
Explanation: B
The closer two genes are, the less likely crossing over occurs between them, resulting in stronger linkage.Incorrect
Explanation: B
The closer two genes are, the less likely crossing over occurs between them, resulting in stronger linkage. -
Question 110 of 180
110. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyCorrect sequence in a basic reflex arc:
Correct
Explanation: B
This is the canonical arc.Incorrect
Explanation: B
This is the canonical arc. -
Question 111 of 180
111. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich scientist first demonstrated linkage in Drosophila melanogaster?
Correct
Explanation: C
Morgan’s experiments with fruit flies revealed gene linkage and mapped chromosome inheritance patterns.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Morgan’s experiments with fruit flies revealed gene linkage and mapped chromosome inheritance patterns. -
Question 112 of 180
112. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe cerebrum (cerebral cortex) is chiefly responsible for:
Correct
Explanation: C
Cerebral cortex integrates higher-order processing and voluntary control.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Cerebral cortex integrates higher-order processing and voluntary control. -
Question 113 of 180
113. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyA father with hemophilia and a normal mother will have:
Correct
Explanation: B
Daughters receive one X from father (carrying hemophilia gene) and one normal X from mother → carriers.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Daughters receive one X from father (carrying hemophilia gene) and one normal X from mother → carriers. -
Question 114 of 180
114. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe cerebellum’s chief role is in:
Correct
Explanation: B
Cerebellum refines motor output; damage → ataxia.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Cerebellum refines motor output; damage → ataxia. -
Question 115 of 180
115. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich statement correctly describes hemophilia?
Correct
Explanation: B
Hemophilia is an X-linked recessive condition due to absence of clotting factor VIII.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Hemophilia is an X-linked recessive condition due to absence of clotting factor VIII. -
Question 116 of 180
116. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich hormone directly stimulates Leydig cells to secrete testosterone?
Correct
Explanation: B
LH (Interstitial Cell Stimulating Hormone) acts on Leydig cells located between seminiferous tubules to secrete testosterone.Incorrect
Explanation: B
LH (Interstitial Cell Stimulating Hormone) acts on Leydig cells located between seminiferous tubules to secrete testosterone. -
Question 117 of 180
117. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyA man with normal vision marries a color-blind woman. What is expected in their daughters?
Correct
Explanation: B
Daughters receive a defective X from mother and a normal X from father → carriers.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Daughters receive a defective X from mother and a normal X from father → carriers. -
Question 118 of 180
118. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryRole of Pyridine in preparation of alkyl halide from alcohol & SOCl2 is?
Correct
Explanation: D
Mechanistic aid: Alcohol reacts with SOCl2 forming an alkyl chlorosulfite intermediate.
Pyridine as a base/HCl scavenger: The reaction generates HCl; pyridine (a base) neutralizes HCl to pyridinium chloride, preventing acid‑catalyzed side reactions and driving the reaction forward. (⇒ B and C true.)
Solvent & facilitator: Pyridine commonly serves as the solvent and can form a reactive complex with SOCl2 that accelerates the SN2 pathway, often giving inversion of configuration at a chiral center. (⇒ A true.)
Bottom line: It acts as solvent, traps HCl, and serves as base → All.Incorrect
Explanation: D
Mechanistic aid: Alcohol reacts with SOCl2 forming an alkyl chlorosulfite intermediate.
Pyridine as a base/HCl scavenger: The reaction generates HCl; pyridine (a base) neutralizes HCl to pyridinium chloride, preventing acid‑catalyzed side reactions and driving the reaction forward. (⇒ B and C true.)
Solvent & facilitator: Pyridine commonly serves as the solvent and can form a reactive complex with SOCl2 that accelerates the SN2 pathway, often giving inversion of configuration at a chiral center. (⇒ A true.)
Bottom line: It acts as solvent, traps HCl, and serves as base → All. -
Question 119 of 180
119. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryIndex to metallic character is:
Correct
Explanation: D
Hint: Metallicity ↔ low IE;
Non‑metallicity ↔ high EN/EA.
Metallic character = ease of losing electrons (forming M+).
Lower ionization energy (IE) ⇒ electrons are removed more easily ⇒ more metallic.
Electronegativity and electron affinity are indices of non‑metallic character. Conductivity is a property of metals but varies with structure/impurities and is not the accepted periodic “index.”
Therefore: Ionization energy is the best index; lower IE ⇒ higher metallic character.Incorrect
Explanation: D
Hint: Metallicity ↔ low IE;
Non‑metallicity ↔ high EN/EA.
Metallic character = ease of losing electrons (forming M+).
Lower ionization energy (IE) ⇒ electrons are removed more easily ⇒ more metallic.
Electronegativity and electron affinity are indices of non‑metallic character. Conductivity is a property of metals but varies with structure/impurities and is not the accepted periodic “index.”
Therefore: Ionization energy is the best index; lower IE ⇒ higher metallic character. -
Question 120 of 180
120. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryOxidation of carbon occurs in which conversion?
A. CH3Cl to CH3OH
B. C2H4 to C2H5OH
C. CH4 to CH3OH
D. C2H2 to C2H4Correct
Explanation: C
Alkane to alcohol is oxidation.
Oxidation of C: count O’s ↑ / H’s ↓ / OS goes up (e.g., CH4 → CH3OH).Incorrect
Explanation: C
Alkane to alcohol is oxidation.
Oxidation of C: count O’s ↑ / H’s ↓ / OS goes up (e.g., CH4 → CH3OH). -
Question 121 of 180
121. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryProduct of hydration of unsymmetrical straight chain alkene:
A. 10 alcohol
B. 20 alcohol
C. 30 alcohol
D. Any of theseCorrect
Explanation: B
Unsymmetrical straight chain alkene is 1 alkene which adds H2O according to Markovnikov’s rule giving 2-alcohol.
Default hydration (acid‑catalyzed) follows Markovnikov’s rule: the OH goes to the more substituted C of the double bond.
Example: propene CH3–CH=CH2 → 2‑propanol.
Because it’s straight chain and unsymmetrical, Markovnikov addition gives a secondary (2°) alcohol.
Notes: Anti‑Markovnikov hydration (hydroboration–oxidation) would give a 1° alcohol, but the usual textbook meaning of “hydration” is acid‑catalyzed.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Unsymmetrical straight chain alkene is 1 alkene which adds H2O according to Markovnikov’s rule giving 2-alcohol.
Default hydration (acid‑catalyzed) follows Markovnikov’s rule: the OH goes to the more substituted C of the double bond.
Example: propene CH3–CH=CH2 → 2‑propanol.
Because it’s straight chain and unsymmetrical, Markovnikov addition gives a secondary (2°) alcohol.
Notes: Anti‑Markovnikov hydration (hydroboration–oxidation) would give a 1° alcohol, but the usual textbook meaning of “hydration” is acid‑catalyzed. -
Question 122 of 180
122. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryWhich of the given reactions is fastest:
A. CH3F + I2
B. CH3I + F2
C. CH3Cl + Br2
D. CH3Br + Cl2Correct
Explanation: B
CH3I + F2 is faster because iodine is much better leaving group & C-I bond is also weak.
Reaction type: These are free‑radical halogenations of C–H bonds (the methyl groups still have hydrogens).
Reactivity order of halogens: F2 ≫ Cl2 > Br2 ≫ I2.
Fluorination is extremely exothermic and very fast.
Iodination is endothermic in propagation steps (chain doesn’t sustain) → effectively no reaction under normal conditions.
Compare choices:
B. (F2) → fastest.
D. (Cl2) → fast, but slower than F2.
C. (Br2) → slower.
A. (I2) → essentially the slowest (often doesn’t proceed).
Hint: Presence of F2 dominates the rate → B wins.Incorrect
Explanation: B
CH3I + F2 is faster because iodine is much better leaving group & C-I bond is also weak.
Reaction type: These are free‑radical halogenations of C–H bonds (the methyl groups still have hydrogens).
Reactivity order of halogens: F2 ≫ Cl2 > Br2 ≫ I2.
Fluorination is extremely exothermic and very fast.
Iodination is endothermic in propagation steps (chain doesn’t sustain) → effectively no reaction under normal conditions.
Compare choices:
B. (F2) → fastest.
D. (Cl2) → fast, but slower than F2.
C. (Br2) → slower.
A. (I2) → essentially the slowest (often doesn’t proceed).
Hint: Presence of F2 dominates the rate → B wins. -
Question 123 of 180
123. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryThe enzyme that completely digests fats in the intestine is also known as:
Correct
Explanation: B
Once chyme reaches the intestine, pancreatic juice acts. Its pancreatic lipase—also called steapsin—completely hydrolyses dietary fats. Pepsin digests proteins in the stomach; enterokinase activates trypsinogen; trypsin acts on proteins, not fatsIncorrect
Explanation: B
Once chyme reaches the intestine, pancreatic juice acts. Its pancreatic lipase—also called steapsin—completely hydrolyses dietary fats. Pepsin digests proteins in the stomach; enterokinase activates trypsinogen; trypsin acts on proteins, not fats -
Question 124 of 180
124. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryWhich ion below is diamagnetic (all electrons paired)?
A. Fe3+
B. Cu2+
C. Mn2+
D. Zn2+Correct
Explanation D
Reason: Remove 4s electrons first when forming transition-metal cations.
Fe3+: [Ar] 3d5 → 5 unpaired (paramagnetic)
Cu2+: [Ar] 3d9 → 1 unpaired (paramagnetic)
Mn2+: [Ar] 3d5 → 5 unpaired (paramagnetic)
Zn2+: [Ar] 3d10 → all paired (diamagnetic).Incorrect
Explanation D
Reason: Remove 4s electrons first when forming transition-metal cations.
Fe3+: [Ar] 3d5 → 5 unpaired (paramagnetic)
Cu2+: [Ar] 3d9 → 1 unpaired (paramagnetic)
Mn2+: [Ar] 3d5 → 5 unpaired (paramagnetic)
Zn2+: [Ar] 3d10 → all paired (diamagnetic). -
Question 125 of 180
125. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryMethoxy methane is isomeric with:
Correct
Explanation: B
Dimethyl ether & ethanol are functional group isomers.
Methoxy methane = dimethyl ether, CH3–O–CH3 (C2H6O).
Isomers have the same molecular formula:
Ethanol: C2H6O → functional‑group isomer of dimethyl ether.
Diethyl ether (C4H10O), ethane (C2H6), acetone (C3H6O) do not match the formula.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Dimethyl ether & ethanol are functional group isomers.
Methoxy methane = dimethyl ether, CH3–O–CH3 (C2H6O).
Isomers have the same molecular formula:
Ethanol: C2H6O → functional‑group isomer of dimethyl ether.
Diethyl ether (C4H10O), ethane (C2H6), acetone (C3H6O) do not match the formula. -
Question 126 of 180
126. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryCarboxylic acids can be obtained by any of its derivatives by:
Correct
Explanation: C
Hydrolysis of any derivative of carboxylic acids gives back corresponding carboxylic acid.
Carboxylic‑acid derivatives: Acid chlorides, anhydrides, esters, amides, and nitriles.
General route back to the acid: Hydrolysis (acidic or basic).
Acidic: RCOX → RCOOH directly.
Basic (saponification): RCOX → RCOO– (carboxylate); acidify to get RCOOH.
Nitriles: R–C ≡ N → (amide) → RCOOH upon hydrolysis.
Why others are wrong:
Reduction: moves away from acids (to alcohols/aldehydes).
Substitution / ammonolysis: interconvert derivatives (e.g., acid chloride → amide), not necessarily the acid.
Hint: To get the acid from its derivatives, think hydrolysis (then acidify if needed).Incorrect
Explanation: C
Hydrolysis of any derivative of carboxylic acids gives back corresponding carboxylic acid.
Carboxylic‑acid derivatives: Acid chlorides, anhydrides, esters, amides, and nitriles.
General route back to the acid: Hydrolysis (acidic or basic).
Acidic: RCOX → RCOOH directly.
Basic (saponification): RCOX → RCOO– (carboxylate); acidify to get RCOOH.
Nitriles: R–C ≡ N → (amide) → RCOOH upon hydrolysis.
Why others are wrong:
Reduction: moves away from acids (to alcohols/aldehydes).
Substitution / ammonolysis: interconvert derivatives (e.g., acid chloride → amide), not necessarily the acid.
Hint: To get the acid from its derivatives, think hydrolysis (then acidify if needed). -
Question 127 of 180
127. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryMost enzymes have optimum activity in range of pH:
Correct
Explanation: C
Textbook.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Textbook. -
Question 128 of 180
128. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryHighest Ionization energy among given:
Correct
Explanation: A
Group 2 elements have greater IE than group 3
Additional Hint for favorite MDCAT MCQs: Be vs B anomaly: removing a p electron (B) is easier than removing a filled s electron pair (Be).
General trends:
Across a period: IE increases (nuclear charge ↑).
Down a group: IE decreases (distance/shielding ↑).
Known anomaly: Be (2s2) has higher IE than B (2s22p1) because removing a 2p electron from B is easier than removing a 2s electron from Be.
Among the four, the order is Al < Mg < B < Be.
So: Be has the highest IE.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Group 2 elements have greater IE than group 3
Additional Hint for favorite MDCAT MCQs: Be vs B anomaly: removing a p electron (B) is easier than removing a filled s electron pair (Be).
General trends:
Across a period: IE increases (nuclear charge ↑).
Down a group: IE decreases (distance/shielding ↑).
Known anomaly: Be (2s2) has higher IE than B (2s22p1) because removing a 2p electron from B is easier than removing a 2s electron from Be.
Among the four, the order is Al < Mg < B < Be.
So: Be has the highest IE. -
Question 129 of 180
129. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryWhich compound is not organic in nature?
A. (NH2)2CO
B. HCHO
C. N2H4
D. C2H2O4Correct
Explanation: C
Hydrazine is inorganic in nature.
Urea, (NH2)2CO, formaldehyde, HCHO, and oxalic acid, C2H2O4 are standard organic compounds (contain carbon in classical organic frameworks).
Hydrazine, N2H4, contains no carbon ⇒ inorganic.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Hydrazine is inorganic in nature.
Urea, (NH2)2CO, formaldehyde, HCHO, and oxalic acid, C2H2O4 are standard organic compounds (contain carbon in classical organic frameworks).
Hydrazine, N2H4, contains no carbon ⇒ inorganic. -
Question 130 of 180
130. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryRing opening reactions most easily given by:
Correct
Explanation: A
Cyclopropanes have greatest angle strain so they most easily undergo ring opening of addition.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Cyclopropanes have greatest angle strain so they most easily undergo ring opening of addition. -
Question 131 of 180
131. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryStrong nucleophile, primary substrate & polar aprotic solvent favours:
A. SN1
B. SN2
C. E1
D. E2Correct
Explanation: B
Primary substrate: Minimal steric hindrance → ideal for backside attack.
Strong nucleophile: SN2 is bimolecular and rate increases with nucleophile strength.
Polar aprotic solvent (e.g., DMSO, DMF, acetone): Poorly solvates anions, so the nucleophile stays “naked” and reactive, accelerating SN2. (Polar protic would solvate/anesthetize the nucleophile and favor SN1).
E2? Needs strong base and usually more substituted substrates for faster elimination; with primary and “nucleophile‑leaning” conditions, SN2 dominates.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Primary substrate: Minimal steric hindrance → ideal for backside attack.
Strong nucleophile: SN2 is bimolecular and rate increases with nucleophile strength.
Polar aprotic solvent (e.g., DMSO, DMF, acetone): Poorly solvates anions, so the nucleophile stays “naked” and reactive, accelerating SN2. (Polar protic would solvate/anesthetize the nucleophile and favor SN1).
E2? Needs strong base and usually more substituted substrates for faster elimination; with primary and “nucleophile‑leaning” conditions, SN2 dominates. -
Question 132 of 180
132. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryIron is stored in spleen & liver bound to protein called:
Correct
Explanation: C
Iron is transported by transferrin & stored as ferritin.
Ferritin = the storage protein (mostly in liver, spleen, marrow). It sequesters Fe3+ safely inside a protein shell.
Transferrin = transport protein in plasma (moves iron to tissues).
Hemoglobin = oxygen carrier in RBCs, not a storage protein.
Ceruloplasmin = primarily copper‑binding oxidase, not iron storage.
Extra: When ferritin aggregates, it forms hemosiderin, another storage form.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Iron is transported by transferrin & stored as ferritin.
Ferritin = the storage protein (mostly in liver, spleen, marrow). It sequesters Fe3+ safely inside a protein shell.
Transferrin = transport protein in plasma (moves iron to tissues).
Hemoglobin = oxygen carrier in RBCs, not a storage protein.
Ceruloplasmin = primarily copper‑binding oxidase, not iron storage.
Extra: When ferritin aggregates, it forms hemosiderin, another storage form. -
Question 133 of 180
133. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryCopper shows an irregular configuration. The observed ground state is:
A. [Ar] 3d9 4s2
B. [Ar] 3d10 4s1
C. [Ar] 3d8 4s3
D. [Ar] 3d10 4s0Correct
Explanation: B
Aufbau would predict [Ar]3d94s2, but Cu actually is [Ar]3d104s1.
The deviation occurs because a completely filled d subshell (3d10) is slightly more stable.
Options A and C are wrong; D would strip the 4s electron, which is not the neutral-atom ground state.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Aufbau would predict [Ar]3d94s2, but Cu actually is [Ar]3d104s1.
The deviation occurs because a completely filled d subshell (3d10) is slightly more stable.
Options A and C are wrong; D would strip the 4s electron, which is not the neutral-atom ground state. -
Question 134 of 180
134. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryThe alkene that exhibits geometrical isomerism is:
Correct
Explanation: C
Hint: Geometrical isomerism: each C of C=C must bear two different groups (2‑butene).
Each double‑bond carbon must have two different substituents.
Propene (CH3–CH=CH2): terminal carbon has two identical H’s → no GI.
2‑methylpropene ((CH3)2C=CH2): one C has two identical CH3 groups; the other has two H’s → no GI.
2‑butene (CH3–CH=CH–CH3): each C has H and CH3 → cis/trans possible
2‑methyl‑2‑butene: one C has two CH3 → no GI.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Hint: Geometrical isomerism: each C of C=C must bear two different groups (2‑butene).
Each double‑bond carbon must have two different substituents.
Propene (CH3–CH=CH2): terminal carbon has two identical H’s → no GI.
2‑methylpropene ((CH3)2C=CH2): one C has two identical CH3 groups; the other has two H’s → no GI.
2‑butene (CH3–CH=CH–CH3): each C has H and CH3 → cis/trans possible
2‑methyl‑2‑butene: one C has two CH3 → no GI. -
Question 135 of 180
135. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryCatalysts used in hydration of alkynes:
A. H2SO4/HgSO4
B. H2O/H2SO4
C. HI/P
D. Zn/Hg/HClCorrect
Explanation: A
H2SO4/HgSO4 at 80°c are used to hydrate alkynes.Incorrect
Explanation: A
H2SO4/HgSO4 at 80°c are used to hydrate alkynes. -
Question 136 of 180
136. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryButane dioic acid is also called:
Correct
Explanation: A
Systematic vs. common names (for HOOC–(CH₂)ₙ–COOH):
n = 0 → Oxalic (ethanedioic)
n = 1 → Malonic (propanedioic)
n = 2 → Succinic (butanedioic)
n = 3 → Glutaric (pentanedioic)
n = 4 → Adipic (hexanedioic)
Match: Butane (= 4 carbons) ⇒ succinic acid.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Systematic vs. common names (for HOOC–(CH₂)ₙ–COOH):
n = 0 → Oxalic (ethanedioic)
n = 1 → Malonic (propanedioic)
n = 2 → Succinic (butanedioic)
n = 3 → Glutaric (pentanedioic)
n = 4 → Adipic (hexanedioic)
Match: Butane (= 4 carbons) ⇒ succinic acid. -
Question 137 of 180
137. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryPart of the dye which causes it to adhere to material which it colours is:
Correct
Explanation: B
Auxochrome is part of dye which adhere to material being coloured.
Chromophore = the color‑bearing group (e.g., –N = N–, –C=O); it determines absorption/wavelength → the color.
Auxochrome (e.g., –OH, –NH2, –SO3H):
Intensifies color and
Provides sites for bonding (H‑bonding, ionic/salt linkages) to fibers, aiding adhesion/fixation.
Azo group (–N=N–) is a specific chromophore, not the adhesion handle.
“M‑binder” is not a standard structural term in dye chemistry (mordants are separate agents, not “parts” of the dye).
Rule: Chromophore → color; Auxochrome → attach.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Auxochrome is part of dye which adhere to material being coloured.
Chromophore = the color‑bearing group (e.g., –N = N–, –C=O); it determines absorption/wavelength → the color.
Auxochrome (e.g., –OH, –NH2, –SO3H):
Intensifies color and
Provides sites for bonding (H‑bonding, ionic/salt linkages) to fibers, aiding adhesion/fixation.
Azo group (–N=N–) is a specific chromophore, not the adhesion handle.
“M‑binder” is not a standard structural term in dye chemistry (mordants are separate agents, not “parts” of the dye).
Rule: Chromophore → color; Auxochrome → attach. -
Question 138 of 180
138. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryThe lower the ionization energy of an element, greater is its:
Correct
Explanation: B
Hint: Reducers lose electrons easily (low IE); oxidizers gain easily (high EA/EN).
Reducing agent = species that loses electrons (gets oxidized).
Lower IE ⇒ electrons are lost more easily ⇒ stronger reducing power.
Note: Oxidizing power correlates with high electron affinity/electronegativity, not low IE.
Lower IE means easy removal of electrons to donate to others & get them reduced, Hence: Reducing power is greater..Incorrect
Explanation: B
Hint: Reducers lose electrons easily (low IE); oxidizers gain easily (high EA/EN).
Reducing agent = species that loses electrons (gets oxidized).
Lower IE ⇒ electrons are lost more easily ⇒ stronger reducing power.
Note: Oxidizing power correlates with high electron affinity/electronegativity, not low IE.
Lower IE means easy removal of electrons to donate to others & get them reduced, Hence: Reducing power is greater.. -
Question 139 of 180
139. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryWhich of the following would be most reactive towards electrophilic substitutions?
Correct
Explanation: A
Phenol has strongest activation group OH , so it is most reactive towards electrophilic substitution.
Activating power on benzene ring (donation raises ring electron density):
–OH (phenol) > –CH3 (toluene) » benzene » –CHO (benzaldehyde) > –NO2 (nitrobenzene).
Phenol donates by resonance (+M) very strongly → most activated toward ESE (e.g., nitration occurs readily).
Toluene is activating (+I/hyperconjugation) but less than phenol.
Benzaldehyde and nitrobenzene are deactivating.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Phenol has strongest activation group OH , so it is most reactive towards electrophilic substitution.
Activating power on benzene ring (donation raises ring electron density):
–OH (phenol) > –CH3 (toluene) » benzene » –CHO (benzaldehyde) > –NO2 (nitrobenzene).
Phenol donates by resonance (+M) very strongly → most activated toward ESE (e.g., nitration occurs readily).
Toluene is activating (+I/hyperconjugation) but less than phenol.
Benzaldehyde and nitrobenzene are deactivating. -
Question 140 of 180
140. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryMethoxy benzene is commonly called:
Correct
Explanation: B
IUPAC nomenclature of benzene derivatives.Incorrect
Explanation: B
IUPAC nomenclature of benzene derivatives. -
Question 141 of 180
141. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryWhich alkyl halide favors SN1 reaction?
Correct
Explanation: B
2-Methyl-2 chloropropane is a tertiary alkyl halide, so it favors SN1 pathway.
SN1 key determinant: Carbocation stability controls the rate. Stability order: 3° > 2° ≫ 1° ~ methyl.
Evaluate options:
B (t‑BuCl) → forms a tertiary carbocation → highly favored SN1.
C (2‑bromopropane) → secondary; can do SN1 under strongly ionizing conditions but slower than tertiary.
A (ethyl iodide) and D (1‑iodopropane) → both primary, poor for SN1 despite good leaving group (I– ).
Rule : Tertiary > secondary ≫ primary for SN1.Incorrect
Explanation: B
2-Methyl-2 chloropropane is a tertiary alkyl halide, so it favors SN1 pathway.
SN1 key determinant: Carbocation stability controls the rate. Stability order: 3° > 2° ≫ 1° ~ methyl.
Evaluate options:
B (t‑BuCl) → forms a tertiary carbocation → highly favored SN1.
C (2‑bromopropane) → secondary; can do SN1 under strongly ionizing conditions but slower than tertiary.
A (ethyl iodide) and D (1‑iodopropane) → both primary, poor for SN1 despite good leaving group (I– ).
Rule : Tertiary > secondary ≫ primary for SN1. -
Question 142 of 180
142. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryWhich catalyst(s) are indicated for converting acetylene to vinyl chloride?
A. HgCl2 or CuCl
B. FeCl3 or AlCl3
C. Ni or Pd on carbon
D. H2SO4 or H3PO4Correct
Explanation: A
Text Book
The notes explicitly state HgCl2 or CuCl as the catalysts used during hydrochlorination of acetylene.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Text Book
The notes explicitly state HgCl2 or CuCl as the catalysts used during hydrochlorination of acetylene. -
Question 143 of 180
143. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryColourless ion:
A. Cu+1
B. Fe+2
C. Mn+2
D. Cr+3Correct
Explanation: A
• Color of transition-metal ions usually arises from d – d transitions.
• d10 or d0 ions lack such transitions ⇒ often colorless.
• Cu+ is d10 (typically colourless/white compounds).
• Fe2+ (d6), Mn2+ (d5 ), Cr3+ (d3)** are colored** (pale green/pink/green-violet respectively).Incorrect
Explanation: A
• Color of transition-metal ions usually arises from d – d transitions.
• d10 or d0 ions lack such transitions ⇒ often colorless.
• Cu+ is d10 (typically colourless/white compounds).
• Fe2+ (d6), Mn2+ (d5 ), Cr3+ (d3)** are colored** (pale green/pink/green-violet respectively). -
Question 144 of 180
144. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryC – C bond length in alkanes:
Correct
Explanation: B
Canonical bond lengths:
C – C single (alkane) ≈ 154 pm
C = C (alkene) ≈ 134 pm
Aromatic C – C (benzene) ≈ 139 pm
C ≡ C (alkyne) ≈ 120 pm.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Canonical bond lengths:
C – C single (alkane) ≈ 154 pm
C = C (alkene) ≈ 134 pm
Aromatic C – C (benzene) ≈ 139 pm
C ≡ C (alkyne) ≈ 120 pm. -
Question 145 of 180
145. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryOn reduction of an ester, acyl group gets reduced to:
Correct
Explanation: A
On reduction, acyl group always gives primary alcohol.
Strong hydride donors (e.g., LiAlH4) reduce esters:
R–COOR′−>[LiAlH4]R–CH2OH+R′–OH
The acyl carbonyl (R–CO–) becomes R–CH2OH (a 1° alcohol); the alkoxy part R′O– leaves and is also converted to R′OH.Incorrect
Explanation: A
On reduction, acyl group always gives primary alcohol.
Strong hydride donors (e.g., LiAlH4) reduce esters:
R–COOR′−>[LiAlH4]R–CH2OH+R′–OH
The acyl carbonyl (R–CO–) becomes R–CH2OH (a 1° alcohol); the alkoxy part R′O– leaves and is also converted to R′OH. -
Question 146 of 180
146. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryTollen’s test is given by:
Correct
Explanation: D
All of these give positive tollens test.
What is Tollen’s reagent? Ammoniacal silver(I) complex, [Ag(N3)2]+.
What it detects: Reducing carbonyls—classically aldehydes—which reduce Ag+ → Ag0 (silver mirror) while being oxidized to acids.
Who gives positive tests:
Aldehydes (aliphatic and aromatic like benzaldehyde).
α‑Hydroxy ketones (e.g., acetoin) via enediol/tautomerization pathways that make them reducing.
Therefore: A, B, and C are all correct ⇒ D. All.
Alert: Simple ketones (without α‑OH) usually do not give a positive Tollen’s test.Incorrect
Explanation: D
All of these give positive tollens test.
What is Tollen’s reagent? Ammoniacal silver(I) complex, [Ag(N3)2]+.
What it detects: Reducing carbonyls—classically aldehydes—which reduce Ag+ → Ag0 (silver mirror) while being oxidized to acids.
Who gives positive tests:
Aldehydes (aliphatic and aromatic like benzaldehyde).
α‑Hydroxy ketones (e.g., acetoin) via enediol/tautomerization pathways that make them reducing.
Therefore: A, B, and C are all correct ⇒ D. All.
Alert: Simple ketones (without α‑OH) usually do not give a positive Tollen’s test. -
Question 147 of 180
147. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryWhen barium is burned in an atmosphere of oxygen, the principal solid product is:
A. BaO only
B. BaO2
C. Ba2O3
D. Ba(OH)2Correct
Explanation: B
Heavier Group II metals stabilize the peroxide anion O22–. In oxygen, Ba forms barium peroxide, BaO2. (In air/limited O2, BaO can also form, but in O2 the peroxide predominates.) Ba2O3 is not a stable binary oxide; Ba(OH)2 forms with water, not oxygen.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Heavier Group II metals stabilize the peroxide anion O22–. In oxygen, Ba forms barium peroxide, BaO2. (In air/limited O2, BaO can also form, but in O2 the peroxide predominates.) Ba2O3 is not a stable binary oxide; Ba(OH)2 forms with water, not oxygen. -
Question 148 of 180
148. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryFastest step in halogenation of alkanes:
Correct
Explanation: C
Termination involves combination of two radicals to give a neutral molecule so it is fastest since its products are most stable.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Termination involves combination of two radicals to give a neutral molecule so it is fastest since its products are most stable. -
Question 149 of 180
149. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryAlcohol that does not undergo dehydrogenation?
Correct
Explanation: C
Alcohols get oxidized by dehydrogenation, 3° alcohols donot undergo oxidation.
Dehydrogenation over Cu (hot):
1° alcohols → aldehydes;
2° alcohols → ketones.
3° (tertiary) alcohols lack an α‑H on the carbon bearing –OH, so they don’t dehydrogenate; instead they tend to dehydrate to alkenes.
2‑Methyl‑2‑pentanol is tertiary → no dehydrogenation.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Alcohols get oxidized by dehydrogenation, 3° alcohols donot undergo oxidation.
Dehydrogenation over Cu (hot):
1° alcohols → aldehydes;
2° alcohols → ketones.
3° (tertiary) alcohols lack an α‑H on the carbon bearing –OH, so they don’t dehydrogenate; instead they tend to dehydrate to alkenes.
2‑Methyl‑2‑pentanol is tertiary → no dehydrogenation. -
Question 150 of 180
150. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryFormalin is a _______________ mixture of formaldehyde:
Correct
Explanation: B
“formalin” : It’s the standard aqueous solution of formaldehyde used in labs and hospitals.
FORMALIN : 40% HCHO 8% CH3OH 52% H2O.Incorrect
Explanation: B
“formalin” : It’s the standard aqueous solution of formaldehyde used in labs and hospitals.
FORMALIN : 40% HCHO 8% CH3OH 52% H2O. -
Question 151 of 180
151. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryElectronic configuration of Fe+2:
A. 4s2 3d3
B. 4s0 3d6
C. 4s0 3d4
D. 4s1 3d5Correct
Explanation: B
• Neutral Fe (Z = 26): [Ar]4s2 3d6.
• On ionization, 4s electrons are removed before 3d (in complexes/ions the 4s lies higher).
• Fe2+: [Ar]3d6 ⇒ written as 4s0 3d6.
Hint: Transition‑metal ions: remove 4s before 3d to form cations.Incorrect
Explanation: B
• Neutral Fe (Z = 26): [Ar]4s2 3d6.
• On ionization, 4s electrons are removed before 3d (in complexes/ions the 4s lies higher).
• Fe2+: [Ar]3d6 ⇒ written as 4s0 3d6.
Hint: Transition‑metal ions: remove 4s before 3d to form cations. -
Question 152 of 180
152. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryMajor product of monohalogenation of propane:
Correct
Explanation: B
In mono halogenation of propane, secondary hydrogen is preferably substituted forming 2 halo propane.
Radical halogenation favors formation via the more stable radical:
Secondary radical (CH3–ĊH–CH3) > primary radical.
Hence 2‑halopropane dominates (especially in bromination; still the major product in chlorination).
(1,2‑ or 1,1‑dihalides require two halogenations—not “monohalogenation”).Incorrect
Explanation: B
In mono halogenation of propane, secondary hydrogen is preferably substituted forming 2 halo propane.
Radical halogenation favors formation via the more stable radical:
Secondary radical (CH3–ĊH–CH3) > primary radical.
Hence 2‑halopropane dominates (especially in bromination; still the major product in chlorination).
(1,2‑ or 1,1‑dihalides require two halogenations—not “monohalogenation”). -
Question 153 of 180
153. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryBenzene 1,3 diol is also called:
Correct
Explanation: B
Phenylene diols:
1,2‑diol → catechol (ortho)
1,3‑diol → resorcinol (meta)
1,4‑diol → hydroquinone (para)
Benzoquinone is an oxidized quinone (not a diol).Incorrect
Explanation: B
Phenylene diols:
1,2‑diol → catechol (ortho)
1,3‑diol → resorcinol (meta)
1,4‑diol → hydroquinone (para)
Benzoquinone is an oxidized quinone (not a diol). -
Question 154 of 180
154. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryGeminal diether is a product of reaction of aldehydes or ketones with:
A. Esters
B. Alcohols
C. Hydroxyl amine
D. LiAlH4Correct
Explanation: B
Incorrect
Explanation: B

-
Question 155 of 180
155. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryDecomposition of group 1 nitrates give:
A. M2O + NO2 + O2
B. MNO2 + O2
C. MNO + NO
D. M2O + NO2Correct
Explanation: B
Incorrect
Explanation: B

-
Question 156 of 180
156. Question
1 pointsCategory: Chemistry3rd member of alkene family:
Correct
Explanation: B
3rd member of alkene has 4 carbons since first member is two carbon ethene.
Alkenes (CnH2n) stable series starts at ethene (C2H4):
1st ethene, 2nd propene (propylene), 3rd butene.
(“Propyne” is an alkyne, not an alkene).Incorrect
Explanation: B
3rd member of alkene has 4 carbons since first member is two carbon ethene.
Alkenes (CnH2n) stable series starts at ethene (C2H4):
1st ethene, 2nd propene (propylene), 3rd butene.
(“Propyne” is an alkyne, not an alkene). -
Question 157 of 180
157. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryC – O bond length is shorter in phenols than alcohols because:
A. Phenols have double bond between C & O
B. C – O bond of phenol is less polar
C. C of phenols is sp2 hybridized
D. All of theseCorrect
Explanation: C
C of phenols is sp2 hybridized while that of alcohols is sp3 hybridized.
Additional :
What really shortens the bond:
The ring carbon is sp2, giving a shorter C–O σ‑bond than an sp3 carbon.
Resonance delocalizes the O lone pair into the ring, imparting partial double‑bond character to C–O (also shortens it).
Among the choices, C correctly captures a key structural reason.
A as written (“double bond”) overstates it; it’s partial double‑bond character.
B (“less polar”) is not the cause of the shorter bond length.Incorrect
Explanation: C
C of phenols is sp2 hybridized while that of alcohols is sp3 hybridized.
Additional :
What really shortens the bond:
The ring carbon is sp2, giving a shorter C–O σ‑bond than an sp3 carbon.
Resonance delocalizes the O lone pair into the ring, imparting partial double‑bond character to C–O (also shortens it).
Among the choices, C correctly captures a key structural reason.
A as written (“double bond”) overstates it; it’s partial double‑bond character.
B (“less polar”) is not the cause of the shorter bond length. -
Question 158 of 180
158. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistrySiO2 is solid while CO2 is a gas because:
A. CO2 has large sized molecules
B. CO2 is polar
C. SiO2 has giant network structure while CO2 is a single molecule
D. SiO2 has more covalent bonds in a single moleculeCorrect
Explanation: C
CO₂ is a small, linear molecule (O=C=O). Between molecules, only weak dispersion forces exist ⇒ gas at room temperature.
SiO2 (quartz) is a giant molecular , 3‑D covalent network (each Si is tetrahedrally bound to 4 O, each O bridges two Si) ⇒ very high lattice connectivity ⇒ hard, high‑melting solid.
Thus: the network vs molecular nature explains the state difference.Incorrect
Explanation: C
CO₂ is a small, linear molecule (O=C=O). Between molecules, only weak dispersion forces exist ⇒ gas at room temperature.
SiO2 (quartz) is a giant molecular , 3‑D covalent network (each Si is tetrahedrally bound to 4 O, each O bridges two Si) ⇒ very high lattice connectivity ⇒ hard, high‑melting solid.
Thus: the network vs molecular nature explains the state difference. -
Question 159 of 180
159. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryTrue about alkenes:
Correct
Explanation: B
Branching increases stability of alkenes as in alkanes.
General stability rules:
More substituted (often more branched) C = C is more stable (hyperconjugation/inductive donation).
Order: tetra → tri → di → mono‑substituted.
Trans (E) > cis (Z) (less steric strain) → so A is false.
More alkyl groups increase, not decrease, stability → C is false.
Conjugated alkenes are extra stable, so their heats of hydrogenation are lower (less exothermic) than expected, not higher → D is false.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Branching increases stability of alkenes as in alkanes.
General stability rules:
More substituted (often more branched) C = C is more stable (hyperconjugation/inductive donation).
Order: tetra → tri → di → mono‑substituted.
Trans (E) > cis (Z) (less steric strain) → so A is false.
More alkyl groups increase, not decrease, stability → C is false.
Conjugated alkenes are extra stable, so their heats of hydrogenation are lower (less exothermic) than expected, not higher → D is false. -
Question 160 of 180
160. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryNucleophilic substitution for preparation of phenol occurs in:
Correct
Explanation: C
Dow’s method involves substitution of Cl by OH.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Dow’s method involves substitution of Cl by OH. -
Question 161 of 180
161. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryComposition of Lindlar’s catalyst:
A. Pd/BaSO4/Quinoline.
B. Na/NH3(l)
C. N2H2/KOH
D. Zn/Hg/HClCorrect
Explanation: A
A poisoned palladium catalyst (Pd dispersed on BaSO4 or CaCO3, with poisons such as quinoline or Pb(OAc)2).
Selectively hydrogenates alkynes to cis‑alkenes (stops at the alkene; doesn’t continue to the alkane).
Why others are wrong:
B is Birch reduction (Na/NH3(l)); C (N2H4/KOH) is Wolff–Kishner for C = O → CH2; D (Zn/Hg/HCl) is Clemmensen (reduces C = O in acidic medium).Incorrect
Explanation: A
A poisoned palladium catalyst (Pd dispersed on BaSO4 or CaCO3, with poisons such as quinoline or Pb(OAc)2).
Selectively hydrogenates alkynes to cis‑alkenes (stops at the alkene; doesn’t continue to the alkane).
Why others are wrong:
B is Birch reduction (Na/NH3(l)); C (N2H4/KOH) is Wolff–Kishner for C = O → CH2; D (Zn/Hg/HCl) is Clemmensen (reduces C = O in acidic medium). -
Question 162 of 180
162. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryWhite ppt is formed when phenol is reacted with:
A. HNO3 dil
B. Conc. HNO3
C. Limited Br2
D. Excess Br2Correct
Explanation: D
Excess Br2 gives white ppt of tribromophenol with Phenol.
Additional Details
Activation of the ring: The –OH group in phenol strongly activates the benzene ring by resonance, making ortho and para positions very electron‑rich.
Reaction with bromine water/excess Br2: In aqueous conditions (or with excess Br2), phenol undergoes rapid electrophilic substitution at 2, 4, and 6 positions to give 2,4,6‑tribromophenol, which is a white precipitate (low solubility).
What the other options do:
Dilute or conc. HNO3 → nitration (o‑/p‑nitrophenols), no white ppt characteristic of tribromophenol.
Limited Br2 (especially in nonpolar solvent, controlled conditions) can give mainly mono‑bromophenols rather than the tribromo white ppt.
Memory hook: Phenol + bromine water → white ppt of 2,4,6‑tribromophenol.Incorrect
Explanation: D
Excess Br2 gives white ppt of tribromophenol with Phenol.
Additional Details
Activation of the ring: The –OH group in phenol strongly activates the benzene ring by resonance, making ortho and para positions very electron‑rich.
Reaction with bromine water/excess Br2: In aqueous conditions (or with excess Br2), phenol undergoes rapid electrophilic substitution at 2, 4, and 6 positions to give 2,4,6‑tribromophenol, which is a white precipitate (low solubility).
What the other options do:
Dilute or conc. HNO3 → nitration (o‑/p‑nitrophenols), no white ppt characteristic of tribromophenol.
Limited Br2 (especially in nonpolar solvent, controlled conditions) can give mainly mono‑bromophenols rather than the tribromo white ppt.
Memory hook: Phenol + bromine water → white ppt of 2,4,6‑tribromophenol. -
Question 163 of 180
163. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnglishComplete the sentence: The new policy will have little ____________ on staffing levels.
Correct
Explanation: B
Effect is a noun meaning “result” or “outcome.” The pattern is “have an/any/little … effect on X.”
→ “have little effect on staffing levels.”
Eliminate:
A. affect – usually a verb (“to influence”), so it doesn’t fit after “have little … on.”
C. affects – verb (3rd person singular); wrong form and role.
D. effected – past-tense/past participle verb (“brought about”); not a noun.
Tip: Affect = Action (verb); Effect = End result (noun).Incorrect
Explanation: B
Effect is a noun meaning “result” or “outcome.” The pattern is “have an/any/little … effect on X.”
→ “have little effect on staffing levels.”
Eliminate:
A. affect – usually a verb (“to influence”), so it doesn’t fit after “have little … on.”
C. affects – verb (3rd person singular); wrong form and role.
D. effected – past-tense/past participle verb (“brought about”); not a noun.
Tip: Affect = Action (verb); Effect = End result (noun). -
Question 164 of 180
164. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnglishWhich sentence has correct subject–verb agreement?
Correct
Explanation: B
Main subject = “One” → singular → is.
• The relative clause “who know the answer” modifies students (plural), so the verb inside the clause must be know (plural), not knows.
Eliminate:
A. “…are here” (plural) mismatches singular one; also “who knows” mismatches plural students.
C. “one of the student” should be students (plural after “one of the”).
D. “who knows” mismatches plural students (the clause describes students, not one).
Structure check:
[One] (is here) of the [students who know the answer].Incorrect
Explanation: B
Main subject = “One” → singular → is.
• The relative clause “who know the answer” modifies students (plural), so the verb inside the clause must be know (plural), not knows.
Eliminate:
A. “…are here” (plural) mismatches singular one; also “who knows” mismatches plural students.
C. “one of the student” should be students (plural after “one of the”).
D. “who knows” mismatches plural students (the clause describes students, not one).
Structure check:
[One] (is here) of the [students who know the answer]. -
Question 165 of 180
165. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnglishConvert the conditional: ‘If it rains tomorrow, we will stay in,’ she said.
Correct
Explanation: C
Reporting verb in past (said) → backshift: rains → rained, will → would.
• Time word: tomorrow → the next day.
• Pronoun shift: we → they (reporting by a third person not included in the original “we”).
Eliminate:
A. keeps tomorrow (should be the next day).
B. “She told that …” is ungrammatical (told needs an object: told me/us), and we likely needs shifting.
D. “if it would rain” is not idiomatic in conditionals after if.
Template:
She said (that) if past … they would …Incorrect
Explanation: C
Reporting verb in past (said) → backshift: rains → rained, will → would.
• Time word: tomorrow → the next day.
• Pronoun shift: we → they (reporting by a third person not included in the original “we”).
Eliminate:
A. keeps tomorrow (should be the next day).
B. “She told that …” is ungrammatical (told needs an object: told me/us), and we likely needs shifting.
D. “if it would rain” is not idiomatic in conditionals after if.
Template:
She said (that) if past … they would … -
Question 166 of 180
166. Question
1 pointsCategory: English“Clack clack, the train worried the rails.” The device chiefly imitating motion is:
Correct
Explanation: B
Clack clack imitates train sounds → onomatopoeia enhancing auditory imagery.
• Onomatopoeia imitates sound (here, clack clack) to evoke the train’s motion.
• Alliteration and assonance are sound-patterning devices, but they don’t specifically imitate real-world sounds. Litotes is understatement via negation.
Eliminate:
A. Alliteration = repeated initial consonants. “soft silver sand.”
C. Assonance = repeated vowel sounds. “weak and weary”; “little drip.” (echo, mood)
D. Litotes = ironic understatement in which an affirmative is expressed by the negative of its contrary “not bad,” “no small feat,” etc.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Clack clack imitates train sounds → onomatopoeia enhancing auditory imagery.
• Onomatopoeia imitates sound (here, clack clack) to evoke the train’s motion.
• Alliteration and assonance are sound-patterning devices, but they don’t specifically imitate real-world sounds. Litotes is understatement via negation.
Eliminate:
A. Alliteration = repeated initial consonants. “soft silver sand.”
C. Assonance = repeated vowel sounds. “weak and weary”; “little drip.” (echo, mood)
D. Litotes = ironic understatement in which an affirmative is expressed by the negative of its contrary “not bad,” “no small feat,” etc. -
Question 167 of 180
167. Question
1 pointsCategory: English“Someone has repaired the printer.”
Correct
Explanation: C
Proper present-perfect passive: has been + past participle.
• Drops the unknown agent (“someone”) as requested
Eliminate:
A. adds “by someone” (keeps agent; instruction said to avoid it).
B. “has repaired” is active, and “has repaired” without an object is ungrammatical here.
D. “is repaired” = simple present, not present perfect.
Formula:
Active: Someone has repaired the printer.
Passive: The printer has been repaired.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Proper present-perfect passive: has been + past participle.
• Drops the unknown agent (“someone”) as requested
Eliminate:
A. adds “by someone” (keeps agent; instruction said to avoid it).
B. “has repaired” is active, and “has repaired” without an object is ungrammatical here.
D. “is repaired” = simple present, not present perfect.
Formula:
Active: Someone has repaired the printer.
Passive: The printer has been repaired. -
Question 168 of 180
168. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnglishPassage: Super Off-Peak Return (extract): “Outward travel not valid before 09.45 Mon–Fri. Return travel from London Terminals is not valid on departures between 16.00 and 19.01 inclusive. Break of journey permitted on return only. Railcard discounts apply except in July–August.” Which return departure from London is permitted?
Correct
Explanation: D
Not valid from 16:00 up to and including 19:01.
• Permitted times are before 16:00 or after 19:01.
• 19:30 is after the restriction window → valid.
Eliminate:
A. 16.10 – inside the window → not valid.
B. 18.50 – inside the window → not valid.
C. 19.00 – inside the window → not valid.
Inequality view:
• Invalid if 16:00 ≤ time ≤ 19:01; valid if time < 16:00 or time > 19:01.Incorrect
Explanation: D
Not valid from 16:00 up to and including 19:01.
• Permitted times are before 16:00 or after 19:01.
• 19:30 is after the restriction window → valid.
Eliminate:
A. 16.10 – inside the window → not valid.
B. 18.50 – inside the window → not valid.
C. 19.00 – inside the window → not valid.
Inequality view:
• Invalid if 16:00 ≤ time ≤ 19:01; valid if time < 16:00 or time > 19:01. -
Question 169 of 180
169. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnglishThe children are playing _____________ the garden
Correct
Explanation: A
Standard collocation: play in the garden (enclosed/outdoor area).
Eliminate:
B. on – implies surface contact (on the floor/roof).
C. at – general location point; less natural here.
D. to – preposition of direction; not used with “play.”
Collocation tip: in the garden/park/street; on the beach/floor; at school/home/work.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Standard collocation: play in the garden (enclosed/outdoor area).
Eliminate:
B. on – implies surface contact (on the floor/roof).
C. at – general location point; less natural here.
D. to – preposition of direction; not used with “play.”
Collocation tip: in the garden/park/street; on the beach/floor; at school/home/work. -
Question 170 of 180
170. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnglishThe novelist’s style is succinct—no wasted words, no rambling digressions. Succinct most nearly means:
Correct
Explanation: A
uccinct = expressed clearly and in few words.
Eliminate:
B. complex – often the opposite of succinct.
C. humorous – unrelated.
D. poetic – stylistic quality, not brevity.Incorrect
Explanation: A
uccinct = expressed clearly and in few words.
Eliminate:
B. complex – often the opposite of succinct.
C. humorous – unrelated.
D. poetic – stylistic quality, not brevity. -
Question 171 of 180
171. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnglishChoose the correctly punctuated sentence.
Correct
Explanation: B
Conventional modern style: set i.e. off with commas on both sides when it introduces a clarification; keep periods in the abbreviation and a comma after it: i.e.,
• This keeps the main clause intact and treats i.e. parenthetically.
Eliminate:
A. missing the comma(s) that set off i.e.
C. semicolon before i.e. is generally unnecessary here and breaks the sentence awkwardly.
D. an em dash can work in some styles, but most tests assess the comma-within-clause convention—B is the textbook answer.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Conventional modern style: set i.e. off with commas on both sides when it introduces a clarification; keep periods in the abbreviation and a comma after it: i.e.,
• This keeps the main clause intact and treats i.e. parenthetically.
Eliminate:
A. missing the comma(s) that set off i.e.
C. semicolon before i.e. is generally unnecessary here and breaks the sentence awkwardly.
D. an em dash can work in some styles, but most tests assess the comma-within-clause convention—B is the textbook answer. -
Question 172 of 180
172. Question
1 pointsCategory: Logical ReasoningAZ,GT,MN,?,YB
Correct
Explanation: B
Incorrect
Explanation: B

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Question 173 of 180
173. Question
1 pointsCategory: Logical ReasoningI. The dam released excess water overnight.
II. Villages downstream experienced flooding by morning.Correct
Explanation A
I. The dam released excess water overnight. → Event occurs first (overnight).cause
II. Villages downstream experienced flooding by morning. → Event occurs after (by morning). Effect
Releasing excess water increases river discharge below the
Dam release (I) → higher downstream flow → overtopping/backup → flooding (II).Incorrect
Explanation A
I. The dam released excess water overnight. → Event occurs first (overnight).cause
II. Villages downstream experienced flooding by morning. → Event occurs after (by morning). Effect
Releasing excess water increases river discharge below the
Dam release (I) → higher downstream flow → overtopping/backup → flooding (II). -
Question 174 of 180
174. Question
1 pointsCategory: Logical ReasoningStatement: A national bank reports a sharp rise in phishing losses due to fake login pages.
Courses of Action:
I. Temporarily disable internet banking for all customers for a week to “break the chain.”
II. Enforce mandatory multi‑factor authentication, run takedowns of fake sites, and issue urgent customer alerts.Correct
Explanation: B
Core problem: Credential theft.
Test I: Cutting service punishes all users, pushes them to unsafe workarounds, and doesn’t neutralize phishing → does not follow.
Test II: mandatory multi‑factor authentication + takedowns + awareness directly reduce successful phishing → follows.
Conclusion: Only II is appropriate.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Core problem: Credential theft.
Test I: Cutting service punishes all users, pushes them to unsafe workarounds, and doesn’t neutralize phishing → does not follow.
Test II: mandatory multi‑factor authentication + takedowns + awareness directly reduce successful phishing → follows.
Conclusion: Only II is appropriate. -
Question 175 of 180
175. Question
1 pointsCategory: Logical ReasoningQuestion: Museum notice: “An extra gallery will be opened on weekends to manage crowding.”
Assumptions:
I. Visitor crowding is higher on weekends.
II. Opening an extra gallery will alleviate crowding.Correct
Explanation: C
The action is weekend‑specific ⇒ I implicit. It’s chosen because it is expected to distribute visitors better ⇒ II implicit.Incorrect
Explanation: C
The action is weekend‑specific ⇒ I implicit. It’s chosen because it is expected to distribute visitors better ⇒ II implicit. -
Question 176 of 180
176. Question
1 pointsCategory: Logical ReasoningA fruit basket contains more apples than lemons.
There are more lemons in the basket than there are oranges.
The basket contains more apples than oranges.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement isCorrect
Explanation A
If apples > lemons and lemons > oranges, then by transitivity apples > oranges.Incorrect
Explanation A
If apples > lemons and lemons > oranges, then by transitivity apples > oranges. -
Question 177 of 180
177. Question
1 pointsCategory: Logical ReasoningQuestion: Should CCTV cameras be installed in all public parks?
Arguments:
I. Yes, visible surveillance deters crime and increases perceived safety.
II. No, cameras always violate fundamental rights and should never be used.Correct
Explanation A
Argument I is a reasonable, practical point (deterrence + perceived safety) → strong.
Argument II uses absolutes (“always,” “never”) and ignores context/regulation → weak.Incorrect
Explanation A
Argument I is a reasonable, practical point (deterrence + perceived safety) → strong.
Argument II uses absolutes (“always,” “never”) and ignores context/regulation → weak. -
Question 178 of 180
178. Question
1 pointsCategory: Logical ReasoningLook at this series: U32, V29, __, X23, Y20, . . . What number should fill the blank?
Correct
Explanation: A
In this series, the letters progress by 1; the numbers decrease by 3.Incorrect
Explanation: A
In this series, the letters progress by 1; the numbers decrease by 3. -
Question 179 of 180
179. Question
1 pointsCategory: Logical ReasoningStatements: All the windows are doors. No door is a wall.
Conclusions:
1. Some windows are walls.
2. No wall is a door.Correct
Explanation: B
Incorrect
Explanation: B

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Question 180 of 180
180. Question
1 pointsCategory: Logical ReasoningQuestion:
Statement: A few shortlisted candidates missed the interview due to train delay.
Conclusions:
I. All shortlisted candidates missed the interview.
II. None of the shortlisted candidates missed the interview.Correct
Explanation: D
“A few shortlisted candidates missed” ⇒ some (at least one), not necessarily all. So I doesn’t follow.
Since some missed, “none missed” is false. So II doesn’t follow.Incorrect
Explanation: D
“A few shortlisted candidates missed” ⇒ some (at least one), not necessarily all. So I doesn’t follow.
Since some missed, “none missed” is false. So II doesn’t follow.