Test-12 2025
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Information
- Format: Online – From Home
- Total # of MCQs: 180
Biology = 81 + Physics = 36 + Chemistry = 45 + English = 9 + Logical Reasoning = 9 - Time Duration : 180 Minute (3 hours)
The Test is Programmed with Time Restriction, Which will Teach you Time Management. - No Negative Marking
So, Attempt all the Questions. - Kindly keep some rough pages and pen with you for rough work
- The Explanations of all the MCQ’s will be provided to you with Your Right & Wrong Answers on completion of this Test.
- Bismillah & Darood Sharif Phr k, Start your Test/Quiz, and Attempt it with Full Concentration.
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- Answered
- Review
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Question 1 of 180
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsAccording to Newton’s concept of sound propagation in gases, which statement is correct?
Correct
Explanation: A
Incorrect
Explanation: A

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Question 2 of 180
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsThree forces of equal magnitude F act at 0°, 120°, and 240° to +x. The resultant is:
Correct
Explanation: C
Incorrect
Explanation: C

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Question 3 of 180
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsA block moves 6m east while a constant force of magnitude 10N acts at 600 north of east. The work done by the force is
Correct
Explanation: B
Incorrect
Explanation: B

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Question 4 of 180
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsA body first covers 100m towards east in 3 secs, then turns around cover 50 m towards west in 2 secs. Then the average velocity of this body is equal to:
Correct
Explanation: B
Total time = 3 + 2 = 5
Total displacement = 100 – 50= 50
Average velocity = 50/5 = 10m/s.
For speed
Total distance = 100 + 50 = 150
Average speed = 150/5 = 30 m/sIncorrect
Explanation: B
Total time = 3 + 2 = 5
Total displacement = 100 – 50= 50
Average velocity = 50/5 = 10m/s.
For speed
Total distance = 100 + 50 = 150
Average speed = 150/5 = 30 m/s -
Question 5 of 180
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsWhen a body completes one full revolution, what is the ratio of the angular displacement measured in radians to that measured in degrees?
Correct
Explanation: B
For one complete revolution,
angle in radians = 2π, angle in degrees = 360°.
Therefore,
radians/degrees = 2π/360 = π/180.
Note: π/180 is the general conversion factor from degrees to radians (i.e., 1° = π/180 rad). Option D, 360/2π = 180/π, is the inverse (degrees per radian).Incorrect
Explanation: B
For one complete revolution,
angle in radians = 2π, angle in degrees = 360°.
Therefore,
radians/degrees = 2π/360 = π/180.
Note: π/180 is the general conversion factor from degrees to radians (i.e., 1° = π/180 rad). Option D, 360/2π = 180/π, is the inverse (degrees per radian). -
Question 6 of 180
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsTwo balls of same size are dropped from a top of a very tall building, if density of ball A is greater than density of ball B , then what can be said about their terminal velocities:
Correct
Explanation: A
Terminal velocity is given by the formula
V = 2gpr2/9n, if r = constant, V is directly proportional to density, so the ball with more density will have more Terminal velocity.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Terminal velocity is given by the formula
V = 2gpr2/9n, if r = constant, V is directly proportional to density, so the ball with more density will have more Terminal velocity. -
Question 7 of 180
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Physics20 waves are produced in a wire having a length of 10 m, wavelength of the wave produced is:
Correct
Explanation: D
L = nλ
Wavelength = total length/ no of waves= 10/20 = 0.5m.Incorrect
Explanation: D
L = nλ
Wavelength = total length/ no of waves= 10/20 = 0.5m. -
Question 8 of 180
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsAcceleration of simple harmonic oscillator “SHO” is always directed towards mean position, this means that if SHO is released from extreme position and it completes one vibration then acceleration changes its direction _____________ times during the vibration.
Correct
Explanation: B
In SHM, a=−ω2x: acceleration always points toward the mean, so its direction flips when x changes sign. Over one full oscillation the mass crosses the mean position twice, so acceleration reverses direction two times

Incorrect
Explanation: B
In SHM, a=−ω2x: acceleration always points toward the mean, so its direction flips when x changes sign. Over one full oscillation the mass crosses the mean position twice, so acceleration reverses direction two times

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Question 9 of 180
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsHeat capacity at constant Cp is greater than heat capacity at constant volume Cv because at constant pressure all the heat _______________.
Correct
Explanation: C
In Isobaric all the heat is not converted into internal energy as some part of heat is also converted into work therefore more heat is required to raise the temperature
In Isochoric all the heat is converted into internal energy and therefore less heat is required.Incorrect
Explanation: C
In Isobaric all the heat is not converted into internal energy as some part of heat is also converted into work therefore more heat is required to raise the temperature
In Isochoric all the heat is converted into internal energy and therefore less heat is required. -
Question 10 of 180
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsA vector has rectangular components as –2i and –2j, the angle of this vector with respect to positive x axis is:
Correct
Explanation: B
For angle we use, angle = tan–1 y/x = tan–1 2/2= 45 degrees
As both x and y are negative vector is lying in 3rd quadrant
For 3rd quadrant, angle = 180 + 45 = 225 degrees.Incorrect
Explanation: B
For angle we use, angle = tan–1 y/x = tan–1 2/2= 45 degrees
As both x and y are negative vector is lying in 3rd quadrant
For 3rd quadrant, angle = 180 + 45 = 225 degrees. -
Question 11 of 180
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsWhich statement about energy of a system is correct?
Correct
Explanation: C
• Concept and Explanation: Energy is scalar; it is conserved (transferred/ transformed) but not created/destroyed.
Energy has no direction (so A is false), total energy includes many forms—kinetic, potential, thermal, etc. (so B is false), and it’s conserved—not created or destroyed—only transformed or transferred (so D is false).Incorrect
Explanation: C
• Concept and Explanation: Energy is scalar; it is conserved (transferred/ transformed) but not created/destroyed.
Energy has no direction (so A is false), total energy includes many forms—kinetic, potential, thermal, etc. (so B is false), and it’s conserved—not created or destroyed—only transformed or transferred (so D is false). -
Question 12 of 180
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsA particle moves along a circular path of radius r. If the magnitude of its displacement is 2r, what distance (along the circle) has it traveled at minimum?
Correct
Explanation: C
A displacement of 2r means the initial and final points are diametrically opposite, so the chord between them is a diameter. The shortest arc connecting opposite points is a semicircle, whose length is half the circumference:
distance = 1/2 (2πr) = πr.
Circular Motion: Displacement vs Distance
distance along arc = πr.
Incorrect
Explanation: C
A displacement of 2r means the initial and final points are diametrically opposite, so the chord between them is a diameter. The shortest arc connecting opposite points is a semicircle, whose length is half the circumference:
distance = 1/2 (2πr) = πr.
Circular Motion: Displacement vs Distance
distance along arc = πr.

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Question 13 of 180
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsTwo clocks are having radius such that Ra > Rb, then after 2 hours we can say that:
Correct
Explanation: B
All the hands of clock when compared with same hand of any other clock have same angular velocity
If angular velocity is constant
Linear velocity is directly proportional to radius (v = ωR)
If Ra > Rb than Va > Vb.Incorrect
Explanation: B
All the hands of clock when compared with same hand of any other clock have same angular velocity
If angular velocity is constant
Linear velocity is directly proportional to radius (v = ωR)
If Ra > Rb than Va > Vb. -
Question 14 of 180
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsThe more the speed of a body inside a fluid, the more the flow of fluid across it becomes:
Correct
Explanation: C
The more the velocity, the more will be the drag force acting on it and flow of the fluid across it will be Turbulent.Incorrect
Explanation: C
The more the velocity, the more will be the drag force acting on it and flow of the fluid across it will be Turbulent. -
Question 15 of 180
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsDuring the propagation of longitudinal wave, when particles of the medium vibrate opposite to direction of propagation of wave we say that a ________ is formed:
Correct
Explanation: D
In a longitudinal wave, particles oscillate back and forth along the line of travel. Where they move opposite the wave’s propagation, they spread out, creating a low-density, low-pressure region—a rarefaction. (Compressions occur where particles move with the wave and crowd together.)Incorrect
Explanation: D
In a longitudinal wave, particles oscillate back and forth along the line of travel. Where they move opposite the wave’s propagation, they spread out, creating a low-density, low-pressure region—a rarefaction. (Compressions occur where particles move with the wave and crowd together.) -
Question 16 of 180
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsRatio of kinetic energy and potential energy in simple harmonic motion when it is as a distance “n” from the mean position is equal to_______ if amplitude of vibration is Xo:
A. Xo2/N2
B. Xo2/N2+ 1
C. Xo2/N2 – 1
D. 1Correct
Explanation: C
Incorrect
Explanation: C

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Question 17 of 180
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsA thermally insulated container is expanded and work done during expansion is equal to 80 J, if initially the internal energy of the gas inside the container is 100 J then after expansion energy of the system will be:
Correct
Explanation: C
Thermally insulated = Adiabatic = Q = 0
For Adiabatic
W = change in internal energy
New internal energy = Initial internal energy – work = 100 – 80 = 20.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Thermally insulated = Adiabatic = Q = 0
For Adiabatic
W = change in internal energy
New internal energy = Initial internal energy – work = 100 – 80 = 20. -
Question 18 of 180
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsMagnitude of dot product of two vectors A and B is AB, then the cross product of the same vectors is equal to:
Correct
Explanation: D
If magnitude of dot product between vector A and B is AB this means that the angle between A and B is 0 degrees because: A.B = ABcos(θ) = AB
When angle between two vectors is zero their cross product is:
A × B = ABsin(θ)ń = 0ń (null vector).Incorrect
Explanation: D
If magnitude of dot product between vector A and B is AB this means that the angle between A and B is 0 degrees because: A.B = ABcos(θ) = AB
When angle between two vectors is zero their cross product is:
A × B = ABsin(θ)ń = 0ń (null vector). -
Question 19 of 180
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsTwo objects have the same momentum magnitude p but different masses m1 < m2 Which has greater kinetic energy?
Correct
Explanation A
Incorrect
Explanation A

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Question 20 of 180
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsIf displacement- time curve of a body moving in a straight line is a increasing slope, this means that a body is moving with:
Correct
Explanation: D
Increasing slope means that velocity is increasing
If acceleration is increasing Positive = velocity increases
If acceleration is decreasing positive = velocity increases
If acceleration is uniform Positive = velocity increases.Incorrect
Explanation: D
Increasing slope means that velocity is increasing
If acceleration is increasing Positive = velocity increases
If acceleration is decreasing positive = velocity increases
If acceleration is uniform Positive = velocity increases. -
Question 21 of 180
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsWhich of the following is statements is correct?
Correct
Explanation: A
Because for rigid rotation: v=ω × r.
Order matters (A is ω × r, not r × ω)
and dot products (C, D) would give a scalar, not a velocity vector.
Why B is wrong:
Because the order in a cross product matters (it’s anti-commutative):
a × b = –(b × a)
For rigid rotation the kinematics give
v = ω × r
If you swap the order (option B),
r × ω = –( ω × r) = –v.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Because for rigid rotation: v=ω × r.
Order matters (A is ω × r, not r × ω)
and dot products (C, D) would give a scalar, not a velocity vector.
Why B is wrong:
Because the order in a cross product matters (it’s anti-commutative):
a × b = –(b × a)
For rigid rotation the kinematics give
v = ω × r
If you swap the order (option B),
r × ω = –( ω × r) = –v. -
Question 22 of 180
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsFlow rate of a fluid is equal to:
Correct
Explanation: C
According to equation of continuity
Product of area and velocity = volume/ time (flow rate) or
Av = V/t.Incorrect
Explanation: C
According to equation of continuity
Product of area and velocity = volume/ time (flow rate) or
Av = V/t. -
Question 23 of 180
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsWhen a sound enters from a rarer medium to a denser medium all except the following changes:
Correct
Explanation: C
Frequency is set by the source and remains the same across media. When sound goes from a rarer to a denser medium, the speed and thus the wavelength change, and the amplitude can change due to reflection/transmission—but the frequency does not.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Frequency is set by the source and remains the same across media. When sound goes from a rarer to a denser medium, the speed and thus the wavelength change, and the amplitude can change due to reflection/transmission—but the frequency does not. -
Question 24 of 180
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsIf time period of a simple pendulum is 24 seconds and amplitude of vibration is 2m, then time required by it to move from mean to cover a displacement of 1m is equal to:
Correct
Explanation: B
Time to reach from mean to mid of mean and extreme = T/12 = 24/12 = 2s.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Time to reach from mean to mid of mean and extreme = T/12 = 24/12 = 2s. -
Question 25 of 180
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsWhich of the following systems most efficiently converts the heat into work:
Correct
Explanation: C
In isothermal change in internal energy is zero and all the heat supplied is converted into work.
For an ideal gas, Q = ΔU + W.
• Isothermal: ΔU = 0 ⇒ W = Q → all added heat becomes work (max conversion).
• Isobaric: part of Q raises ΔU.
• Isochoric: W = 0.
• Adiabatic: Q = 0 (no heat-to-work conversion).Incorrect
Explanation: C
In isothermal change in internal energy is zero and all the heat supplied is converted into work.
For an ideal gas, Q = ΔU + W.
• Isothermal: ΔU = 0 ⇒ W = Q → all added heat becomes work (max conversion).
• Isobaric: part of Q raises ΔU.
• Isochoric: W = 0.
• Adiabatic: Q = 0 (no heat-to-work conversion). -
Question 26 of 180
26. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsMagnitude of Cross of a vector with itself is equal to:
Correct
Explanation: C
Incorrect
Explanation: C

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Question 27 of 180
27. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsA body placed at infinity has a absolute gravitational potential energy equal to zero, if this body is lowered and distance from earth is decreased then what can be said about its energy:
Correct
Explanation: B
Incorrect
Explanation: B

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Question 28 of 180
28. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsIf a force of (2i + 3j)N acts on a body and it gains a velocity of (3j + 2k) m/s, then the power is equal to:
Correct
Explanation: D
Power = P = F.V = (2 × 0) + (3 × 3) + (0 × 2) = 0 + 9 + 0 = 9W.Incorrect
Explanation: D
Power = P = F.V = (2 × 0) + (3 × 3) + (0 × 2) = 0 + 9 + 0 = 9W. -
Question 29 of 180
29. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsIf range of projectile is equal to Vi2/2g, where Vi is the velocity of projection and g is the gravitational acceleration, then the angle of projection of this projectile is:
Correct
Explanation: B
Incorrect
Explanation: B

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Question 30 of 180
30. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsAccording to Bernoulli principle, for a vertical pipe with uniform diameter and a varying height, Kinetic energy per unit volume of fluid _______ with increase in height of pipe:
Correct
Explanation: C
For steady, incompressible flow in a vertical pipe of uniform diameter, continuity gives Av = const Since A is constant, the speed v is the same at all heights.
Bernoulli’s equation along the pipe (neglecting losses) is
P + 1/2 ρv2 + ρgz = constant.
As height z increases, P decreases to compensate, while the kinetic-energy term 1/2 ρv2 stays constant. Hence the kinetic energy per unit volume remains the same with height.
In horizontal pipe PE/volume = ρgh remains same
In vertical pipe KE/volume = 1/2 ρv2 remains same.Incorrect
Explanation: C
For steady, incompressible flow in a vertical pipe of uniform diameter, continuity gives Av = const Since A is constant, the speed v is the same at all heights.
Bernoulli’s equation along the pipe (neglecting losses) is
P + 1/2 ρv2 + ρgz = constant.
As height z increases, P decreases to compensate, while the kinetic-energy term 1/2 ρv2 stays constant. Hence the kinetic energy per unit volume remains the same with height.
In horizontal pipe PE/volume = ρgh remains same
In vertical pipe KE/volume = 1/2 ρv2 remains same. -
Question 31 of 180
31. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsDue to end effect in closed organ pipe we say that Wavelength of fundamental note formed in pipe of length “l” is:
Correct
Explanation: B
Source used to form wave in the organ pipe is not kept precisely on the opening of the pipe. There is a small space between the open end and the source this is called as end effect
Due to this we say that fundamental note Wavelength is slightly larger than 4l.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Source used to form wave in the organ pipe is not kept precisely on the opening of the pipe. There is a small space between the open end and the source this is called as end effect
Due to this we say that fundamental note Wavelength is slightly larger than 4l. -
Question 32 of 180
32. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsWhich of the following correctly describes law of thermal equilibrium:
Correct
Explanation: C
That’s the essence of thermal equilibrium: when two bodies have the same temperature, there’s no net heat flow between them.
A and B are statements of the second law (Clausius form / source → sink idea), not the law of thermal equilibrium.Incorrect
Explanation: C
That’s the essence of thermal equilibrium: when two bodies have the same temperature, there’s no net heat flow between them.
A and B are statements of the second law (Clausius form / source → sink idea), not the law of thermal equilibrium. -
Question 33 of 180
33. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsThe same projectile is fired on Earth and on the Moon with identical u and θ. Ignoring air, how does Horizontal component of velocity (VH) compare?
Correct
Explanation C
VH = u cosθ is independent of g.
Gravity is vertical; it does not alter vx.
A, B. Confuse effect of g on vx. D. vx ≠ 0 at the top anywhere.
Important formula(s)/law(s): ax = 0, vx = u cosθ.
Hints/shortcuts: Change g → affects vy and time, not vx.Incorrect
Explanation C
VH = u cosθ is independent of g.
Gravity is vertical; it does not alter vx.
A, B. Confuse effect of g on vx. D. vx ≠ 0 at the top anywhere.
Important formula(s)/law(s): ax = 0, vx = u cosθ.
Hints/shortcuts: Change g → affects vy and time, not vx. -
Question 34 of 180
34. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsIf the aorta’s cross-sectional area is 3.0 cm2 and the combined area of all capillaries is 2400 cm2, and the mean aortic speed is 1 ms–1, the mean capillary speed is closest to:
A. 4.8 ms–1
B. 0.48 ms–1
C. 1.25 × 10–3 ms–1|
D. 0.6 ×10–4 ms–1Correct
Explanation: C
Incorrect
Explanation: C

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Question 35 of 180
35. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsWhen a massive body moving with velocity “V” strikes a very light body at rest. Considering the collision to be perfectly elastic, the velocity of the light body after collision will be:
Correct
Explanation: C
When a heavy body collides with a light body at rest then
Velocity of heavy body after collision = remains same
Velocity of light body after collision = 2 times of velocity of heavy body.Incorrect
Explanation: C
When a heavy body collides with a light body at rest then
Velocity of heavy body after collision = remains same
Velocity of light body after collision = 2 times of velocity of heavy body. -
Question 36 of 180
36. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsA string of length 5m vibrating in form of 5 loops, then the Wavelength of stationary wave formed in the string is equal to:
Correct
Explanation: B
λ for a string fixed at both ends with n loops is λ = 2L/n.
Here L = 5m and n = 5, so
λ = 2×5/5 = 2m.Incorrect
Explanation: B
λ for a string fixed at both ends with n loops is λ = 2L/n.
Here L = 5m and n = 5, so
λ = 2×5/5 = 2m. -
Question 37 of 180
37. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhat are the indirect effects of a rise in heart rate for an athlete during a 200-meter race?
Correct
Explanation: C
1. During a sprint (200 m race):
The muscles require rapid delivery of oxygen and nutrients (especially glucose).
The heart rate increases → more blood is pumped per minute → more oxygen and glucose are delivered to muscle cells.
Waste products (like CO2 and lactic acid) are removed faster.
2. Looking at options:
A. Increase digestion of carbohydrates → Not correct. Digestion is slowed during exercise because blood is diverted away from the gut to the muscles.
B. Increase ventilation of the lungs with fresh air → This is mainly due to increased breathing rate, not directly an effect of increased heart rate (though both are coordinated). Heart rate rise itself doesn’t increase ventilation.
C. Reduce the need for anaerobic respiration Correct. By pumping more oxygen-rich blood to the muscles, the increased heart rate helps supply sufficient oxygen, thereby delaying or reducing the need for anaerobic respiration (which produces lactic acid).
D. Reduce the need for sweating to cool the body → Incorrect. Sweating is mainly controlled by body temperature, not heart rate.
Correct Answer: C. To reduce the need for anaerobic respiration:
The indirect effect of increased heart rate is enhanced oxygen delivery to muscles. This allows muscles to rely more on aerobic respiration, which is efficient and prevents early buildup of lactic acid, thus reducing the reliance on anaerobic respiration.Incorrect
Explanation: C
1. During a sprint (200 m race):
The muscles require rapid delivery of oxygen and nutrients (especially glucose).
The heart rate increases → more blood is pumped per minute → more oxygen and glucose are delivered to muscle cells.
Waste products (like CO2 and lactic acid) are removed faster.
2. Looking at options:
A. Increase digestion of carbohydrates → Not correct. Digestion is slowed during exercise because blood is diverted away from the gut to the muscles.
B. Increase ventilation of the lungs with fresh air → This is mainly due to increased breathing rate, not directly an effect of increased heart rate (though both are coordinated). Heart rate rise itself doesn’t increase ventilation.
C. Reduce the need for anaerobic respiration Correct. By pumping more oxygen-rich blood to the muscles, the increased heart rate helps supply sufficient oxygen, thereby delaying or reducing the need for anaerobic respiration (which produces lactic acid).
D. Reduce the need for sweating to cool the body → Incorrect. Sweating is mainly controlled by body temperature, not heart rate.
Correct Answer: C. To reduce the need for anaerobic respiration:
The indirect effect of increased heart rate is enhanced oxygen delivery to muscles. This allows muscles to rely more on aerobic respiration, which is efficient and prevents early buildup of lactic acid, thus reducing the reliance on anaerobic respiration. -
Question 38 of 180
38. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyTestosterone, estrogen, and progesterone are hormones of:
Correct
Explanation: A
1. Classification of hormones by chemical nature:
• Steroid hormones: Derived from cholesterol (e.g., testosterone, estrogen, progesterone, cortisol, aldosterone).
• Amino acid derivatives: From tyrosine or tryptophan (e.g., thyroxine, adrenaline, melatonin).
• Protein/Polypeptide hormones: Chains of amino acids (e.g., insulin, glucagon, growth hormone).
2. Testosterone, estrogen, progesterone → all are sex hormones derived from cholesterol → hence steroid hormones.
3. Check options:
A. Steroid nature Correct.
B. Amino acid nature Wrong.
C. Protein nature Wrong.
D. Polypeptide nature Wrong.
Correct Answer: A. Steroid nature
Sex hormones such as testosterone, estrogen, and progesterone belong to the steroid family, synthesized from cholesterol, and are lipid-soluble. They pass through cell membranes and act via intracellular receptors to regulate gene expression.Incorrect
Explanation: A
1. Classification of hormones by chemical nature:
• Steroid hormones: Derived from cholesterol (e.g., testosterone, estrogen, progesterone, cortisol, aldosterone).
• Amino acid derivatives: From tyrosine or tryptophan (e.g., thyroxine, adrenaline, melatonin).
• Protein/Polypeptide hormones: Chains of amino acids (e.g., insulin, glucagon, growth hormone).
2. Testosterone, estrogen, progesterone → all are sex hormones derived from cholesterol → hence steroid hormones.
3. Check options:
A. Steroid nature Correct.
B. Amino acid nature Wrong.
C. Protein nature Wrong.
D. Polypeptide nature Wrong.
Correct Answer: A. Steroid nature
Sex hormones such as testosterone, estrogen, and progesterone belong to the steroid family, synthesized from cholesterol, and are lipid-soluble. They pass through cell membranes and act via intracellular receptors to regulate gene expression. -
Question 39 of 180
39. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich blood vessel contains a high oxygen concentration, low carbon dioxide concentration and a high pressure?
Correct
Explanation: A
1. Aorta:
• Carries blood from the left ventricle to the body.
• Blood is oxygen-rich (just pumped from lungs via left atrium/ventricle).
• CO2 is low.
• Pressure is highest because it receives blood directly from the left ventricle’s powerful contraction.
2. Pulmonary artery:
• Carries blood from right ventricle → lungs.
• Blood is deoxygenated (low O2, high CO2).
3. Pulmonary vein:
• Carries blood from lungs → left atrium.
• Blood is oxygenated and low in CO2, but pressure is much lower than in the aorta.
4. Vena cava:
• Carries blood from body → right atrium.
• Blood is low in O2, high in CO2, and under low pressure.
Correct Answer: A. Aorta.Incorrect
Explanation: A
1. Aorta:
• Carries blood from the left ventricle to the body.
• Blood is oxygen-rich (just pumped from lungs via left atrium/ventricle).
• CO2 is low.
• Pressure is highest because it receives blood directly from the left ventricle’s powerful contraction.
2. Pulmonary artery:
• Carries blood from right ventricle → lungs.
• Blood is deoxygenated (low O2, high CO2).
3. Pulmonary vein:
• Carries blood from lungs → left atrium.
• Blood is oxygenated and low in CO2, but pressure is much lower than in the aorta.
4. Vena cava:
• Carries blood from body → right atrium.
• Blood is low in O2, high in CO2, and under low pressure.
Correct Answer: A. Aorta. -
Question 40 of 180
40. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich statement best describes both plant and animal cells?
Correct
Explanation: B
Both plant and animal cells are eukaryotic and contain mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum, and Golgi apparatus. Plastids and large vacuoles are specific to plants; centrioles are typical of animals.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Both plant and animal cells are eukaryotic and contain mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum, and Golgi apparatus. Plastids and large vacuoles are specific to plants; centrioles are typical of animals. -
Question 41 of 180
41. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe ER that is continuous with the nuclear envelope is:
Correct
Explanation: A
Rough ER is continuous with the nuclear envelope and plays a role in transporting proteins.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Rough ER is continuous with the nuclear envelope and plays a role in transporting proteins. -
Question 42 of 180
42. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyHemoglobin is an example of:
Correct
Explanation: B
Hemoglobin has 4 subunits (quaternary).Incorrect
Explanation: B
Hemoglobin has 4 subunits (quaternary). -
Question 43 of 180
43. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich effect can overcome competitive inhibition?
Correct
Explanation: B
Higher substrate concentration outcompetes inhibitor.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Higher substrate concentration outcompetes inhibitor. -
Question 44 of 180
44. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyIn one turn of the Krebs cycle, how many NADH molecules are formed?
Correct
Explanation: C
Each acetyl-CoA yields 3 NADH, 1 FADH2, 1 ATP (or GTP), and 2 CO2.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Each acetyl-CoA yields 3 NADH, 1 FADH2, 1 ATP (or GTP), and 2 CO2. -
Question 45 of 180
45. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich part of the antibody binds specifically to the antigen?
Correct
Explanation: B
The variable region at the tips of the antibody arms determines antigen specificity.Incorrect
Explanation: B
The variable region at the tips of the antibody arms determines antigen specificity. -
Question 46 of 180
46. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyEnzymes in mammals work best at which temperature?
A. 25° C
B. 30° C
C. 37° C
D. 40° CCorrect
Explanation: D
Most mammalian enzymes show their maximum activity near 40°C, which is close to the normal body temperature of mammals (around 37°C). At this temperature, the enzymes maintain their proper shape and catalytic efficiency. Below or above this range, their activity decreases, and very high temperatures can denature them permanently.Incorrect
Explanation: D
Most mammalian enzymes show their maximum activity near 40°C, which is close to the normal body temperature of mammals (around 37°C). At this temperature, the enzymes maintain their proper shape and catalytic efficiency. Below or above this range, their activity decreases, and very high temperatures can denature them permanently. -
Question 47 of 180
47. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyBlood from the ileum is carried in the hepatic portal vein to the liver. Why is this an advantage to the body?
Correct
Explanation: B
1. Blood from the ileum contains digested nutrients (glucose, amino acids, some vitamins, toxins if present, etc.).
• These nutrients go via the hepatic portal vein directly to the liver before entering general circulation.
2. Checking options one by one:
A. Amino acids → urea before circulation
The liver deaminates excess amino acids, but not immediately all amino acids. Useful ones are kept for protein synthesis. Urea production happens when there is surplus amino acid metabolism, not the main advantage.
B. Excess glucose → glycogen
The liver stores glucose as glycogen (glycogenesis). This prevents large fluctuations of blood glucose and avoids wastage. This is a major advantage of portal blood going through the liver.
C. Fat products
Fats are absorbed into lacteals (lymphatic system), not directly into the hepatic portal vein, so this option is wrong.
Final Key: B
Explanation: The hepatic portal vein ensures that absorbed glucose from the ileum is first regulated by the liver. Excess glucose is stored as glycogen, preventing it from being lost or causing harmful spikes in blood sugar levels.Incorrect
Explanation: B
1. Blood from the ileum contains digested nutrients (glucose, amino acids, some vitamins, toxins if present, etc.).
• These nutrients go via the hepatic portal vein directly to the liver before entering general circulation.
2. Checking options one by one:
A. Amino acids → urea before circulation
The liver deaminates excess amino acids, but not immediately all amino acids. Useful ones are kept for protein synthesis. Urea production happens when there is surplus amino acid metabolism, not the main advantage.
B. Excess glucose → glycogen
The liver stores glucose as glycogen (glycogenesis). This prevents large fluctuations of blood glucose and avoids wastage. This is a major advantage of portal blood going through the liver.
C. Fat products
Fats are absorbed into lacteals (lymphatic system), not directly into the hepatic portal vein, so this option is wrong.
Final Key: B
Explanation: The hepatic portal vein ensures that absorbed glucose from the ileum is first regulated by the liver. Excess glucose is stored as glycogen, preventing it from being lost or causing harmful spikes in blood sugar levels. -
Question 48 of 180
48. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyInsulin is secreted by:
Correct
Explanation: B
1. In the pancreas, the endocrine part is the Islets of Langerhans.
• Alpha cells → secrete glucagon (raises blood glucose).
• Beta cells → secrete insulin (lowers blood glucose).
• Delta cells → secrete somatostatin (inhibits both insulin & glucagon).
• Acinar cells → part of the exocrine pancreas, secreting digestive enzymes, not hormones.
2. Since insulin is secreted by beta cells, the correct option is B.
Correct Answer: B. Beta cells
Beta cells of the islets of Langerhans produce insulin, which decreases blood glucose by promoting glucose uptake into cells and conversion of glucose into glycogen (glycogenesis) in liver and muscles.Incorrect
Explanation: B
1. In the pancreas, the endocrine part is the Islets of Langerhans.
• Alpha cells → secrete glucagon (raises blood glucose).
• Beta cells → secrete insulin (lowers blood glucose).
• Delta cells → secrete somatostatin (inhibits both insulin & glucagon).
• Acinar cells → part of the exocrine pancreas, secreting digestive enzymes, not hormones.
2. Since insulin is secreted by beta cells, the correct option is B.
Correct Answer: B. Beta cells
Beta cells of the islets of Langerhans produce insulin, which decreases blood glucose by promoting glucose uptake into cells and conversion of glucose into glycogen (glycogenesis) in liver and muscles. -
Question 49 of 180
49. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyIn ventricular contraction of the right ventricle, which of the following valves is closed?
Correct
Explanation: B
1. Right ventricle contraction (systole):
• Blood is pumped from the right ventricle → pulmonary artery through the pulmonary valve.
• To prevent backflow into the right atrium, the tricuspid valve (between right atrium and right ventricle) must be closed.
2. Check the options:
A. Bicuspid valve (mitral valve): Found between the left atrium and left ventricle, not involved in right ventricle contraction.
B. Tricuspid valve: Located between right atrium and right ventricle → must close during right ventricular systole.
C. Aortic valve: Found at the exit of the left ventricle → not related here.
D. Pulmonary valve: This one opens during right ventricular contraction to allow blood into pulmonary artery, not close.
Correct Answer: B. Tricuspid valve.Incorrect
Explanation: B
1. Right ventricle contraction (systole):
• Blood is pumped from the right ventricle → pulmonary artery through the pulmonary valve.
• To prevent backflow into the right atrium, the tricuspid valve (between right atrium and right ventricle) must be closed.
2. Check the options:
A. Bicuspid valve (mitral valve): Found between the left atrium and left ventricle, not involved in right ventricle contraction.
B. Tricuspid valve: Located between right atrium and right ventricle → must close during right ventricular systole.
C. Aortic valve: Found at the exit of the left ventricle → not related here.
D. Pulmonary valve: This one opens during right ventricular contraction to allow blood into pulmonary artery, not close.
Correct Answer: B. Tricuspid valve. -
Question 50 of 180
50. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe genetic material of prokaryotic cells is found in the:
Correct
Explanation: C
Prokaryotes lack a true nucleus. Their circular DNA is located in the nucleoid region.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Prokaryotes lack a true nucleus. Their circular DNA is located in the nucleoid region. -
Question 51 of 180
51. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyMitochondria resemble prokaryotic cells because they:
Correct
Explanation: C
Like prokaryotes, mitochondria have circular DNA and 70S ribosomes → evidence of endosymbiotic origin.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Like prokaryotes, mitochondria have circular DNA and 70S ribosomes → evidence of endosymbiotic origin. -
Question 52 of 180
52. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyRNA differs from DNA by:
Correct
Explanation: A
RNA has ribose, uracil, usually single-stranded.Incorrect
Explanation: A
RNA has ribose, uracil, usually single-stranded. -
Question 53 of 180
53. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyEffect of lowering temperature on enzyme activity is:
Correct
Explanation: B
Low temperature reduces kinetic energy, slowing enzyme-substrate collisions.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Low temperature reduces kinetic energy, slowing enzyme-substrate collisions. -
Question 54 of 180
54. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe first stable compound of Krebs cycle is:
Correct
Explanation: B
Acetyl-CoA (2C) combines with oxaloacetate (4C) to form citrate (6C).Incorrect
Explanation: B
Acetyl-CoA (2C) combines with oxaloacetate (4C) to form citrate (6C). -
Question 55 of 180
55. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich valve prevents backflow of blood from the left ventricle into the left atrium?
Correct
Explanation: B
The bicuspid valve is present between the left atrium and ventricle.Incorrect
Explanation: B
The bicuspid valve is present between the left atrium and ventricle. -
Question 56 of 180
56. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich cells of the stomach secrete pepsinogen?
Correct
Explanation: C
Chief cells (zymogenic cells) of the gastric glands secrete pepsinogen, the inactive precursor of pepsin. Once released, pepsinogen is converted to active pepsin by the action of hydrochloric acid.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Chief cells (zymogenic cells) of the gastric glands secrete pepsinogen, the inactive precursor of pepsin. Once released, pepsinogen is converted to active pepsin by the action of hydrochloric acid. -
Question 57 of 180
57. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich is the drinking process of the cell?
Correct
Explanation: C
1. Phagocytosis = “cell eating” → intake of solid particles (like bacteria or food particles).
2. Pinocytosis = “cell drinking” → intake of extracellular fluid and dissolved substances into small vesicles.
3. Exocytosis = expulsion/secretion of materials out of the cell (reverse of endocytosis).
4. Chloroplast = organelle for photosynthesis in plants, not a process.
Correct Answer: C. Pinocytosis
Pinocytosis is a type of endocytosis where the cell engulfs droplets of extracellular fluid. It’s called the “cell drinking” process, as opposed to phagocytosis (cell eating).Incorrect
Explanation: C
1. Phagocytosis = “cell eating” → intake of solid particles (like bacteria or food particles).
2. Pinocytosis = “cell drinking” → intake of extracellular fluid and dissolved substances into small vesicles.
3. Exocytosis = expulsion/secretion of materials out of the cell (reverse of endocytosis).
4. Chloroplast = organelle for photosynthesis in plants, not a process.
Correct Answer: C. Pinocytosis
Pinocytosis is a type of endocytosis where the cell engulfs droplets of extracellular fluid. It’s called the “cell drinking” process, as opposed to phagocytosis (cell eating). -
Question 58 of 180
58. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyHow many CO2 molecules from 2 glucose molecules in aerobic respiration?
Correct
Explanation: D
1. One glucose molecule (C6H12O6) in aerobic respiration:
• Glycolysis: produces 2 pyruvate (3C each).
• Link reaction (pyruvate → acetyl-CoA): each pyruvate (2 per glucose) produces 1 CO2 → total 2 CO2.
• Krebs cycle: each acetyl-CoA (2 per glucose) produces 2 CO2 → total 4 CO2.
• Total per glucose = 2 + 4 = 6 CO2.
2. For 2 glucose molecules:
• 6 × 2 = 126 × 2 = 12 CO2.
Correct Answer: D. 12
In aerobic respiration, each glucose molecule is completely oxidized into 6 CO2 molecules. Therefore, for 2 glucose molecules, the total CO2 released is 12 molecules.Incorrect
Explanation: D
1. One glucose molecule (C6H12O6) in aerobic respiration:
• Glycolysis: produces 2 pyruvate (3C each).
• Link reaction (pyruvate → acetyl-CoA): each pyruvate (2 per glucose) produces 1 CO2 → total 2 CO2.
• Krebs cycle: each acetyl-CoA (2 per glucose) produces 2 CO2 → total 4 CO2.
• Total per glucose = 2 + 4 = 6 CO2.
2. For 2 glucose molecules:
• 6 × 2 = 126 × 2 = 12 CO2.
Correct Answer: D. 12
In aerobic respiration, each glucose molecule is completely oxidized into 6 CO2 molecules. Therefore, for 2 glucose molecules, the total CO2 released is 12 molecules. -
Question 59 of 180
59. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyA non-competitive inhibitor decreases the rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction by _______________.
Correct
Explanation: C
1. Types of enzyme inhibition:
• Competitive inhibition: Inhibitor competes with substrate for the active site.
• Non-competitive inhibition: Inhibitor binds to an allosteric site (a site other than the active site).
2. Effect of non-competitive inhibition:
• Changes the shape of the enzyme (including active site).
• Substrate can still bind (sometimes), but enzyme cannot catalyze reaction effectively.
• Rate of reaction decreases regardless of substrate concentration.
3. Check options:
A. Competing with the substrate at the active site → This is competitive inhibition.
B. Increasing substrate concentration → This increases rate, not decreases it.
C. Binding to a site other than the active site → Correct, definition of non-competitive inhibition.
D. Denaturing the enzyme → Denaturation is caused by heat/pH extremes, not inhibitors.
Correct Answer: C. Binding to a site other than the active siteIncorrect
Explanation: C
1. Types of enzyme inhibition:
• Competitive inhibition: Inhibitor competes with substrate for the active site.
• Non-competitive inhibition: Inhibitor binds to an allosteric site (a site other than the active site).
2. Effect of non-competitive inhibition:
• Changes the shape of the enzyme (including active site).
• Substrate can still bind (sometimes), but enzyme cannot catalyze reaction effectively.
• Rate of reaction decreases regardless of substrate concentration.
3. Check options:
A. Competing with the substrate at the active site → This is competitive inhibition.
B. Increasing substrate concentration → This increases rate, not decreases it.
C. Binding to a site other than the active site → Correct, definition of non-competitive inhibition.
D. Denaturing the enzyme → Denaturation is caused by heat/pH extremes, not inhibitors.
Correct Answer: C. Binding to a site other than the active site -
Question 60 of 180
60. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyAn unknown cell is flexible, has centrioles, and stores glycogen. Which is the most accurate identification?
Correct
Explanation: B
Glycogen is the animal storage form, and centrioles are typical of animal cells. Plants/algae store starch instead, while bacteria lack centriolesIncorrect
Explanation: B
Glycogen is the animal storage form, and centrioles are typical of animal cells. Plants/algae store starch instead, while bacteria lack centrioles -
Question 61 of 180
61. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyGlycoproteins are best classified as:
Correct
Explanation: B
They are hybrid molecules: protein backbone + covalently attached carbohydrates.Incorrect
Explanation: B
They are hybrid molecules: protein backbone + covalently attached carbohydrates. -
Question 62 of 180
62. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyBase pairing rule states:
Correct
Explanation: B
Adenine pairs with Thymine (2 H-bonds), Guanine with Cytosine (3 H-bonds).Incorrect
Explanation: B
Adenine pairs with Thymine (2 H-bonds), Guanine with Cytosine (3 H-bonds). -
Question 63 of 180
63. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyOne 18-carbon fatty acid yields how many acetyl-CoA molecules upon complete β-oxidation?
Correct
Explanation: A
Each round of β-oxidation removes 2 carbons as acetyl-CoA. An 18-carbon fatty acid → 18 ÷ 2 = 9 acetyl-CoA molecules. These enter the Krebs cycle, producing a much higher ATP yield than glucose.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Each round of β-oxidation removes 2 carbons as acetyl-CoA. An 18-carbon fatty acid → 18 ÷ 2 = 9 acetyl-CoA molecules. These enter the Krebs cycle, producing a much higher ATP yield than glucose. -
Question 64 of 180
64. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhere does ETC occur in eukaryotic cells?
Correct
Explanation: C
ETC complexes are embedded in inner mitochondrial membrane.Incorrect
Explanation: C
ETC complexes are embedded in inner mitochondrial membrane. -
Question 65 of 180
65. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyHow much content of RNA is present in a bacterial cell compared to DNA?
Correct
Explanation: D
In bacterial cells, RNA is present in a much higher quantity than DNA. The ratio of RNA to DNA is about 6:1, meaning RNA content is nearly six times more than DNA. This is because bacteria require large amounts of RNA (particularly ribosomal RNA) to support rapid protein synthesis and growth, whereas DNA is relatively stable and present in smaller amountsIncorrect
Explanation: D
In bacterial cells, RNA is present in a much higher quantity than DNA. The ratio of RNA to DNA is about 6:1, meaning RNA content is nearly six times more than DNA. This is because bacteria require large amounts of RNA (particularly ribosomal RNA) to support rapid protein synthesis and growth, whereas DNA is relatively stable and present in smaller amounts -
Question 66 of 180
66. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyArrange these in the correct order after the AV node:
i. Purkinje fibers
ii. AV bundle
iii. Ventricular myocardium
iv. Right and left bundle branchesCorrect
Explanation: A
Normal sequence is SA → AV → AV bundle → bundle branches → Purkinje → ventricular muscle.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Normal sequence is SA → AV → AV bundle → bundle branches → Purkinje → ventricular muscle. -
Question 67 of 180
67. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologySynthesis of glycogen is known as:
Correct
Explanation: D
1. Gluconeogenesis = formation of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources (like amino acids, lactate, glycerol).
2. Glycogenolysis = breakdown of glycogen into glucose (for energy release).
3. Glycolysis = breakdown of glucose to pyruvate with ATP release (first step of respiration).
4. Glycogenesis = synthesis of glycogen from glucose molecules for storage in liver and muscle.
Correct Answer: D. Glycogenesis
When blood glucose levels are high (after a meal), glucose is converted into glycogen in the liver and muscle cells through glycogenesis. This process is stimulated by insulin.Incorrect
Explanation: D
1. Gluconeogenesis = formation of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources (like amino acids, lactate, glycerol).
2. Glycogenolysis = breakdown of glycogen into glucose (for energy release).
3. Glycolysis = breakdown of glucose to pyruvate with ATP release (first step of respiration).
4. Glycogenesis = synthesis of glycogen from glucose molecules for storage in liver and muscle.
Correct Answer: D. Glycogenesis
When blood glucose levels are high (after a meal), glucose is converted into glycogen in the liver and muscle cells through glycogenesis. This process is stimulated by insulin. -
Question 68 of 180
68. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich statement about chromosomes is correct?
Correct
Explanation: A
Option A (Correct):
A chromosome is made of a single, long DNA molecule coiled around proteins (histones). This DNA is divided into smaller functional units called genes.
Option B (Incorrect):
This suggests that a chromosome is made of many separate small DNA molecules, each forming a gene. That’s wrong — a chromosome contains one continuous DNA molecule, not many small ones.
Option C (Incorrect):
This flips the relationship. Genes are parts of chromosomes, not the other way around.
Option D (Incorrect):
Genes are not entire long DNA molecules. They are specific segments of DNA that carry instructions for proteins or RNA.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Option A (Correct):
A chromosome is made of a single, long DNA molecule coiled around proteins (histones). This DNA is divided into smaller functional units called genes.
Option B (Incorrect):
This suggests that a chromosome is made of many separate small DNA molecules, each forming a gene. That’s wrong — a chromosome contains one continuous DNA molecule, not many small ones.
Option C (Incorrect):
This flips the relationship. Genes are parts of chromosomes, not the other way around.
Option D (Incorrect):
Genes are not entire long DNA molecules. They are specific segments of DNA that carry instructions for proteins or RNA. -
Question 69 of 180
69. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe backbone of a DNA molecule is composed of _________________.
Correct
Explanation: C
1. Structure of DNA:
• DNA is a double helix made of repeating units called nucleotides.
• Each nucleotide = deoxyribose sugar + phosphate group + nitrogenous base.
2. Backbone composition:
• The sugar (deoxyribose) and phosphate groups link together in a chain.
• Nitrogenous bases (A, T, G, C) project inward and pair by hydrogen bonds.
• Thus, the backbone = deoxyribose + phosphate.
3. Check options:
A. Nucleotides and amino acids → Amino acids make proteins, not DNA backbone.
B. Ribose and phosphate → Ribose is in RNA, not DNA.
C. Deoxyribose and phosphate → Correct.
D. Bases and deoxyribose → Bases are not part of the backbone; they are the rungs of the ladder.
Correct Answer: C. Deoxyribose and phosphate.Incorrect
Explanation: C
1. Structure of DNA:
• DNA is a double helix made of repeating units called nucleotides.
• Each nucleotide = deoxyribose sugar + phosphate group + nitrogenous base.
2. Backbone composition:
• The sugar (deoxyribose) and phosphate groups link together in a chain.
• Nitrogenous bases (A, T, G, C) project inward and pair by hydrogen bonds.
• Thus, the backbone = deoxyribose + phosphate.
3. Check options:
A. Nucleotides and amino acids → Amino acids make proteins, not DNA backbone.
B. Ribose and phosphate → Ribose is in RNA, not DNA.
C. Deoxyribose and phosphate → Correct.
D. Bases and deoxyribose → Bases are not part of the backbone; they are the rungs of the ladder.
Correct Answer: C. Deoxyribose and phosphate. -
Question 70 of 180
70. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich structure ensures equal separation of chromosomes during cell division?
Correct
Explanation: A
The centromere holds sister chromatids and attaches to spindle fibers, ensuring proper chromosome segregation.Incorrect
Explanation: A
The centromere holds sister chromatids and attaches to spindle fibers, ensuring proper chromosome segregation. -
Question 71 of 180
71. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich class of biomolecules is the primary source of immediate energy?
Correct
Explanation: B
Carbohydrates (especially glucose) are the main instant energy source.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Carbohydrates (especially glucose) are the main instant energy source. -
Question 72 of 180
72. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyDNA strands are antiparallel, meaning:
Correct
Explanation: B
Strands are complementary and antiparallel for replication fidelity.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Strands are complementary and antiparallel for replication fidelity. -
Question 73 of 180
73. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyViruses that specifically infect bacteria are called:
Correct
Explanation: C
Bacteriophages are viruses that parasitize bacteria. Example: T4 phage infects E. coli.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Bacteriophages are viruses that parasitize bacteria. Example: T4 phage infects E. coli. -
Question 74 of 180
74. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich of the following is not in direct contact with food during digestion?
Correct
Explanation: A
The liver secretes bile but never comes in direct contact with food. All others are parts of the alimentary canal where food passes .Incorrect
Explanation: A
The liver secretes bile but never comes in direct contact with food. All others are parts of the alimentary canal where food passes . -
Question 75 of 180
75. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich of the following is a fibrous protein?
Correct
Explanation: A
Fibrous proteins are elongated, insoluble proteins that mainly serve structural roles in cells and tissues. Keratin is a classic fibrous protein found in hair, nails, horns, and the outer layer of skin. In contrast, antibodies, haemoglobin, and albumin are globular proteins, which are compact, soluble, and function mainly in transport, defense, and metabolism.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Fibrous proteins are elongated, insoluble proteins that mainly serve structural roles in cells and tissues. Keratin is a classic fibrous protein found in hair, nails, horns, and the outer layer of skin. In contrast, antibodies, haemoglobin, and albumin are globular proteins, which are compact, soluble, and function mainly in transport, defense, and metabolism. -
Question 76 of 180
76. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe Islets of Langerhans account for approximately how much of the total pancreatic mass?
Correct
Explanation: B
The Islets of Langerhans are clusters of endocrine cells in the pancreas that secrete important hormones like insulin, glucagon, and somatostatin. Despite their vital role in glucose metabolism, they make up only about 2% of the total pancreatic mass, with the remaining bulk consisting of exocrine tissue that produces digestive enzymes.Incorrect
Explanation: B
The Islets of Langerhans are clusters of endocrine cells in the pancreas that secrete important hormones like insulin, glucagon, and somatostatin. Despite their vital role in glucose metabolism, they make up only about 2% of the total pancreatic mass, with the remaining bulk consisting of exocrine tissue that produces digestive enzymes. -
Question 77 of 180
77. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyAll are disaccharides except:
Correct
Explanation: D
1. Maltose = Glucose + Glucose → disaccharide
2. Sucrose = Glucose + Fructose → disaccharide
3. Lactose = Glucose + Galactose → disaccharide
4. Fructose = a monosaccharide (single sugar, along with glucose and galactose)
Correct Answer: D. Fructose
Disaccharides are formed by the condensation of two monosaccharides. Maltose, sucrose, and lactose all belong to disaccharides, while fructose is a monosaccharide (a simple sugar).Incorrect
Explanation: D
1. Maltose = Glucose + Glucose → disaccharide
2. Sucrose = Glucose + Fructose → disaccharide
3. Lactose = Glucose + Galactose → disaccharide
4. Fructose = a monosaccharide (single sugar, along with glucose and galactose)
Correct Answer: D. Fructose
Disaccharides are formed by the condensation of two monosaccharides. Maltose, sucrose, and lactose all belong to disaccharides, while fructose is a monosaccharide (a simple sugar). -
Question 78 of 180
78. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhy is right ventricle wall thicker than right atrium?
Correct
Explanation: C
1. Right atrium → receives blood from vena cavae and pushes it only into the right ventricle → requires little force → thin wall.
2. Right ventricle → pumps blood into the lungs through pulmonary artery → requires more pressure than the atrium (though less than the left ventricle, which pumps to the whole body).
3. Wall thickness is due to the force required for pumping, not O₂ concentration or blood volume.
Correct Answer: C. Right ventricle must exert greater force
The ventricle walls are thicker than atria because ventricles must generate more pressure to pump blood out of the heart (to lungs or body), whereas atria only push blood into nearby ventricles.Incorrect
Explanation: C
1. Right atrium → receives blood from vena cavae and pushes it only into the right ventricle → requires little force → thin wall.
2. Right ventricle → pumps blood into the lungs through pulmonary artery → requires more pressure than the atrium (though less than the left ventricle, which pumps to the whole body).
3. Wall thickness is due to the force required for pumping, not O₂ concentration or blood volume.
Correct Answer: C. Right ventricle must exert greater force
The ventricle walls are thicker than atria because ventricles must generate more pressure to pump blood out of the heart (to lungs or body), whereas atria only push blood into nearby ventricles. -
Question 79 of 180
79. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich of the following correctly matches an organelle with its function?
Correct
Explanation: C
Mitochondria oxidize fatty acids and glucose to release ATP. SER synthesizes lipids; Golgi modifies proteins; nucleolus makes rRNA/ribosomesIncorrect
Explanation: C
Mitochondria oxidize fatty acids and glucose to release ATP. SER synthesizes lipids; Golgi modifies proteins; nucleolus makes rRNA/ribosomes -
Question 80 of 180
80. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyBefore entering the Krebs cycle, fatty acids are converted into ______________.
Correct
Explanation: A
1. Metabolism of fatty acids:
• Fatty acids are broken down in the mitochondria by a process called β-oxidation.
• This process sequentially removes 2-carbon fragments from the fatty acid chain.
2. Product of β-oxidation:
• Each 2-carbon fragment is converted into Acetyl-CoA.
• Acetyl-CoA then enters the Krebs cycle (citric acid cycle) to produce NADH, FADH2, and ATP.
3. Check options:
A. Acetyl-CoA → Correct; direct product of β-oxidation.
B. Glucose → Fatty acids cannot be converted back into glucose (except glycerol part of triglycerides).
C. Pyruvate → Pyruvate is formed from glucose (glycolysis), not fatty acids.
D. Citrate → Citrate is formed inside the Krebs cycle from Acetyl-CoA + oxaloacetate, not directly from fatty acids.
Correct Answer: A. Acetyl-CoAIncorrect
Explanation: A
1. Metabolism of fatty acids:
• Fatty acids are broken down in the mitochondria by a process called β-oxidation.
• This process sequentially removes 2-carbon fragments from the fatty acid chain.
2. Product of β-oxidation:
• Each 2-carbon fragment is converted into Acetyl-CoA.
• Acetyl-CoA then enters the Krebs cycle (citric acid cycle) to produce NADH, FADH2, and ATP.
3. Check options:
A. Acetyl-CoA → Correct; direct product of β-oxidation.
B. Glucose → Fatty acids cannot be converted back into glucose (except glycerol part of triglycerides).
C. Pyruvate → Pyruvate is formed from glucose (glycolysis), not fatty acids.
D. Citrate → Citrate is formed inside the Krebs cycle from Acetyl-CoA + oxaloacetate, not directly from fatty acids.
Correct Answer: A. Acetyl-CoA -
Question 81 of 180
81. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich class is most energy-dense?
Correct
Explanation: B
Lipids yield ~9 kcal/g, almost double carbohydrates/proteins.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Lipids yield ~9 kcal/g, almost double carbohydrates/proteins. -
Question 82 of 180
82. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich lipid is a precursor of steroid hormones?
Correct
Explanation: B
Cholesterol is converted into steroid hormones like estrogen, testosterone.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Cholesterol is converted into steroid hormones like estrogen, testosterone. -
Question 83 of 180
83. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich feature is absent in all viruses?
Correct
Explanation: C
Viruses lack metabolic machinery. They rely on host cell enzymes and ribosomes for replication.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Viruses lack metabolic machinery. They rely on host cell enzymes and ribosomes for replication. -
Question 84 of 180
84. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe pyloric sphincter regulates passage of food from:
Correct
Explanation: B
The pyloric sphincter is a muscular valve that controls the movement of partially digested food (chyme) from the stomach into the duodenum.Incorrect
Explanation: B
The pyloric sphincter is a muscular valve that controls the movement of partially digested food (chyme) from the stomach into the duodenum. -
Question 85 of 180
85. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyPrecapillary sphincters are composed primarily of which tissue type?
Correct
Explanation C
They are rings of smooth muscle at the entrance to capillary beds (metarteriole–capillary junction).Incorrect
Explanation C
They are rings of smooth muscle at the entrance to capillary beds (metarteriole–capillary junction). -
Question 86 of 180
86. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyHIV has approximately how many glycoprotein spikes on its surface?
Correct
Explanation: C
The Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) possesses about 72 glycoprotein spikes on its envelope. Each spike is made of gp120 and gp41 glycoproteins, which help the virus attach to and fuse with host cells (mainly CD4+ T-lymphocytes). These spikes are critical for viral infectivity and are major targets for neutralizing antibodies.Incorrect
Explanation: C
The Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) possesses about 72 glycoprotein spikes on its envelope. Each spike is made of gp120 and gp41 glycoproteins, which help the virus attach to and fuse with host cells (mainly CD4+ T-lymphocytes). These spikes are critical for viral infectivity and are major targets for neutralizing antibodies. -
Question 87 of 180
87. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyAn enzyme without its cofactor is called:
Correct
Explanation: D
1. Enzyme structure:
• Many enzymes need a cofactor (non-protein helper, e.g., metal ion or organic molecule) to work.
• The complete, active form of enzyme = Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Cofactor.
2. Definitions:
• Active site = region on enzyme where substrate binds
• Coenzyme = organic, non-protein cofactor (like NAD+, FAD)
• Prosthetic group = tightly bound cofactor to enzyme
• Apoenzyme = the protein part of enzyme, inactive without cofactor
Correct Answer: D. Apoenzyme
An apoenzyme is the inactive protein part of an enzyme. When the required cofactor (metal ion, coenzyme, or prosthetic group) binds, it becomes a holoenzyme, which is catalytically active.Incorrect
Explanation: D
1. Enzyme structure:
• Many enzymes need a cofactor (non-protein helper, e.g., metal ion or organic molecule) to work.
• The complete, active form of enzyme = Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Cofactor.
2. Definitions:
• Active site = region on enzyme where substrate binds
• Coenzyme = organic, non-protein cofactor (like NAD+, FAD)
• Prosthetic group = tightly bound cofactor to enzyme
• Apoenzyme = the protein part of enzyme, inactive without cofactor
Correct Answer: D. Apoenzyme
An apoenzyme is the inactive protein part of an enzyme. When the required cofactor (metal ion, coenzyme, or prosthetic group) binds, it becomes a holoenzyme, which is catalytically active. -
Question 88 of 180
88. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyA patient has her gall bladder surgically removed. How will this affect the functioning of her body?
Correct
Explanation: B
1. Role of the gall bladder:
• The gall bladder does not produce bile; it only stores and releases bile made by the liver.
• Bile contains bile salts which emulsify fats (break large fat globules into smaller droplets).
• This emulsification increases the surface area for lipase enzymes to act, improving fat digestion.
2. If the gall bladder is removed (cholecystectomy):
• The liver still produces bile normally.
• But bile will no longer be stored and concentrated in the gall bladder.
• Instead, bile will drip continuously into the small intestine in small amounts.
• As a result, digestion of large fatty meals becomes less efficient (reduced fat digestion).
3. Why not the other options?
A. Carbohydrates: Their digestion depends on amylase (saliva and pancreatic), not bile.
C. Liver’s ability to convert glucose to glycogen: This is a liver metabolic function, not related to the gall bladder.
D. Stored urine: This is the function of the urinary bladder, not the gall bladder.
Correct Answer: B. Reducing the digestion of fats.Incorrect
Explanation: B
1. Role of the gall bladder:
• The gall bladder does not produce bile; it only stores and releases bile made by the liver.
• Bile contains bile salts which emulsify fats (break large fat globules into smaller droplets).
• This emulsification increases the surface area for lipase enzymes to act, improving fat digestion.
2. If the gall bladder is removed (cholecystectomy):
• The liver still produces bile normally.
• But bile will no longer be stored and concentrated in the gall bladder.
• Instead, bile will drip continuously into the small intestine in small amounts.
• As a result, digestion of large fatty meals becomes less efficient (reduced fat digestion).
3. Why not the other options?
A. Carbohydrates: Their digestion depends on amylase (saliva and pancreatic), not bile.
C. Liver’s ability to convert glucose to glycogen: This is a liver metabolic function, not related to the gall bladder.
D. Stored urine: This is the function of the urinary bladder, not the gall bladder.
Correct Answer: B. Reducing the digestion of fats. -
Question 89 of 180
89. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe causative agent of AIDS is a virus that primarily infects—
Correct
Explanation: C
1. Causative agent of AIDS:
• AIDS (Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome) is caused by HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus).
• HIV is a retrovirus (RNA virus).
2. Target cells:
• HIV specifically attacks Helper T-lymphocytes (CD4+ T-cells).
• These cells are critical for coordinating the immune response.
3. Effect of infection:
• Destruction of helper T-cells → weakened immune system.
• Body becomes vulnerable to opportunistic infections and certain cancers.
4. Check options:
A. Red blood cells → HIV does not infect RBCs; they lack a nucleus and CD4 receptors.
B. Neurons → Not the main target; though HIV can indirectly affect the nervous system, it does not primarily infect neurons.
C. Helper T-lymphocytes → Correct, main target cells.
D. Platelets → Platelets are cell fragments, not infected by HIV.Incorrect
Explanation: C
1. Causative agent of AIDS:
• AIDS (Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome) is caused by HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus).
• HIV is a retrovirus (RNA virus).
2. Target cells:
• HIV specifically attacks Helper T-lymphocytes (CD4+ T-cells).
• These cells are critical for coordinating the immune response.
3. Effect of infection:
• Destruction of helper T-cells → weakened immune system.
• Body becomes vulnerable to opportunistic infections and certain cancers.
4. Check options:
A. Red blood cells → HIV does not infect RBCs; they lack a nucleus and CD4 receptors.
B. Neurons → Not the main target; though HIV can indirectly affect the nervous system, it does not primarily infect neurons.
C. Helper T-lymphocytes → Correct, main target cells.
D. Platelets → Platelets are cell fragments, not infected by HIV. -
Question 90 of 180
90. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich is the main functional role of chromosomes?
Correct
Explanation: B
Chromosomes house DNA, which encodes hereditary information passed from one generation to the next.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Chromosomes house DNA, which encodes hereditary information passed from one generation to the next. -
Question 91 of 180
91. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWater’s polarity makes it an excellent:
Correct
Explanation: B
Polar H2O dissolves polar and ionic substances.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Polar H2O dissolves polar and ionic substances. -
Question 92 of 180
92. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhy are enzymes called biological catalysts?
Correct
Explanation: C
Enzymes accelerate biochemical reactions but remain unchanged after reaction.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Enzymes accelerate biochemical reactions but remain unchanged after reaction. -
Question 93 of 180
93. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe matrix protein of HIV is:
Correct
Explanation: A
HIV has structural proteins: gp120 (attachment), gp41 (fusion), p24 (capsid), and p17 (matrix).Incorrect
Explanation: A
HIV has structural proteins: gp120 (attachment), gp41 (fusion), p24 (capsid), and p17 (matrix). -
Question 94 of 180
94. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyTrypsinogen is activated into trypsin by:
Correct
Explanation: A
Enterokinase from the duodenum activates trypsinogen into active trypsin, which then digests proteins.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Enterokinase from the duodenum activates trypsinogen into active trypsin, which then digests proteins. -
Question 95 of 180
95. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich of the following is an important component of the brain?
Correct
Explanation: A
The brain and nervous tissue are especially rich in glycolipids, which form key parts of the myelin sheath around nerve fibers. They play a vital role in electrical insulation, nerve impulse conduction, and cell recognition in the nervous system. While nucleoproteins, lipoproteins, and glycoproteins are important biological molecules, they are not the major specialized components of brain tissue compared to glycolipids.Incorrect
Explanation: A
The brain and nervous tissue are especially rich in glycolipids, which form key parts of the myelin sheath around nerve fibers. They play a vital role in electrical insulation, nerve impulse conduction, and cell recognition in the nervous system. While nucleoproteins, lipoproteins, and glycoproteins are important biological molecules, they are not the major specialized components of brain tissue compared to glycolipids. -
Question 96 of 180
96. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe first heart sound (lub) is produced due to the closing of:
Correct
Explanation: B
The “lub” sound occurs when AV valves (tricuspid & bicuspid) close at the beginning of ventricular contraction.Incorrect
Explanation: B
The “lub” sound occurs when AV valves (tricuspid & bicuspid) close at the beginning of ventricular contraction. -
Question 97 of 180
97. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyCoenzymes are derived from:
Correct
Explanation: A
Coenzymes are small organic non-protein molecules that bind to enzymes and assist them in catalyzing reactions.
Most coenzymes are derived from vitamins (especially the B-complex vitamins).
Example:
NAD⁺ and NADP⁺ from niacin (Vitamin B3)
FAD from riboflavin (Vitamin B2)
Coenzyme A from pantothenic acid (Vitamin B5)
Minerals (like Mg²⁺, Zn²⁺, Fe²⁺/³⁺, Cu²⁺) act as cofactors, not coenzymes.
Hormones are signaling molecules, not enzyme helpers.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Coenzymes are small organic non-protein molecules that bind to enzymes and assist them in catalyzing reactions.
Most coenzymes are derived from vitamins (especially the B-complex vitamins).
Example:
NAD⁺ and NADP⁺ from niacin (Vitamin B3)
FAD from riboflavin (Vitamin B2)
Coenzyme A from pantothenic acid (Vitamin B5)
Minerals (like Mg²⁺, Zn²⁺, Fe²⁺/³⁺, Cu²⁺) act as cofactors, not coenzymes.
Hormones are signaling molecules, not enzyme helpers. -
Question 98 of 180
98. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyViruses are unique because they contain either DNA or RNA but never both. Which statement is true?
Correct
Explanation: C
1. Nature of viruses:
• Viruses have either DNA or RNA as their genetic material, but never both.
• They may be single-stranded or double-stranded, depending on the virus type.
2. Check each option:
A. Smallpox is an RNA virus → Incorrect.
• Smallpox (variola virus, family Poxviridae) is a large, double-stranded DNA virus.
B. Bacteriophages always contain RNA → Incorrect.
• Most bacteriophages (like T4 phage) have DNA genomes, not RNA.
C. Smallpox is a DNA virus → Correct.
D. Plant viruses never contain DNA → Incorrect.
• Most plant viruses are RNA viruses (e.g., Tobacco mosaic virus = RNA), but some plant viruses do contain DNA (e.g., Geminiviruses).
Correct Answer: C. Smallpox is a DNA virus.Incorrect
Explanation: C
1. Nature of viruses:
• Viruses have either DNA or RNA as their genetic material, but never both.
• They may be single-stranded or double-stranded, depending on the virus type.
2. Check each option:
A. Smallpox is an RNA virus → Incorrect.
• Smallpox (variola virus, family Poxviridae) is a large, double-stranded DNA virus.
B. Bacteriophages always contain RNA → Incorrect.
• Most bacteriophages (like T4 phage) have DNA genomes, not RNA.
C. Smallpox is a DNA virus → Correct.
D. Plant viruses never contain DNA → Incorrect.
• Most plant viruses are RNA viruses (e.g., Tobacco mosaic virus = RNA), but some plant viruses do contain DNA (e.g., Geminiviruses).
Correct Answer: C. Smallpox is a DNA virus. -
Question 99 of 180
99. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich type of immune cell is primarily responsible for antibody formation?
Correct
Explanation: D
1. Role of B-lymphocytes:
• B-cells are a type of lymphocyte that mature in the bone marrow.
• When activated by an antigen (often with help from helper T-cells), they differentiate into plasma cells.
• Plasma cells produce and secrete antibodies (immunoglobulins) specific to the antigen.
2. Check other options:
A. T-lymphocytes → They regulate immunity (helper T-cells) or kill infected cells (cytotoxic T-cells), but they do not produce antibodies.
B. Neutrophils → These are phagocytes that engulf pathogens, not antibody producers.
C. Macrophages → Also phagocytes; they present antigens but don’t make antibodies.
D. B-lymphocytes → Correct; they are the source of antibody production.
Correct Answer: D. B-lymphocytes.Incorrect
Explanation: D
1. Role of B-lymphocytes:
• B-cells are a type of lymphocyte that mature in the bone marrow.
• When activated by an antigen (often with help from helper T-cells), they differentiate into plasma cells.
• Plasma cells produce and secrete antibodies (immunoglobulins) specific to the antigen.
2. Check other options:
A. T-lymphocytes → They regulate immunity (helper T-cells) or kill infected cells (cytotoxic T-cells), but they do not produce antibodies.
B. Neutrophils → These are phagocytes that engulf pathogens, not antibody producers.
C. Macrophages → Also phagocytes; they present antigens but don’t make antibodies.
D. B-lymphocytes → Correct; they are the source of antibody production.
Correct Answer: D. B-lymphocytes. -
Question 100 of 180
100. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyIf histone proteins are absent, what immediate consequence would occur?
Correct
Explanation: B
Histones compact DNA into nucleosomes. Without them, long DNA molecules cannot be packed into the tiny nucleus.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Histones compact DNA into nucleosomes. Without them, long DNA molecules cannot be packed into the tiny nucleus. -
Question 101 of 180
101. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyCane sugar is chemically:
Correct
Explanation: B
Sucrose = glucose + fructose.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Sucrose = glucose + fructose. -
Question 102 of 180
102. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyTobacco mosaic virus is:
Correct
Explanation: C
1. Tobacco mosaic virus (TMV):
• It was the first virus discovered (by Ivanovsky, later studied by Beijerinck).
• Structure: rod-shaped, rigid, and helical.
• Made of a single-stranded RNA genome surrounded by protein subunits arranged helically.
2. Check options:
A. Spherical That describes viruses like polio virus.
B. Tadpole-like That’s typical of bacteriophages (head + tail).
C. Rod-shaped Correct, TMV is rod-shaped.
D. Polyhedral Example: Adenovirus.
Correct Answer: C. Rod-shaped
TMV is a rigid rod-shaped plant virus with helical symmetry. Its discovery was key in understanding that viruses are non-cellular infectious agents made of nucleic acid and protein.Incorrect
Explanation: C
1. Tobacco mosaic virus (TMV):
• It was the first virus discovered (by Ivanovsky, later studied by Beijerinck).
• Structure: rod-shaped, rigid, and helical.
• Made of a single-stranded RNA genome surrounded by protein subunits arranged helically.
2. Check options:
A. Spherical That describes viruses like polio virus.
B. Tadpole-like That’s typical of bacteriophages (head + tail).
C. Rod-shaped Correct, TMV is rod-shaped.
D. Polyhedral Example: Adenovirus.
Correct Answer: C. Rod-shaped
TMV is a rigid rod-shaped plant virus with helical symmetry. Its discovery was key in understanding that viruses are non-cellular infectious agents made of nucleic acid and protein. -
Question 103 of 180
103. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich fact about proteins makes them essential components of the human diet:
Correct
Explanation: D
1. Proteins in diet:
• The body cannot make all the essential amino acids.
• Proteins in food are broken down into amino acids → used to build new proteins for growth, repair, and enzymes.
2. Check each option:
A. They are an energy source → Not their main role. Although proteins can be used for energy (4 kcal/g), this happens mainly in starvation, not their essential function.
B. They are used in synthesizing hormones → Partly true (many hormones like insulin are proteins), but this is not the primary reason they are essential.
C. They can be stored as a food reserve → Proteins are not stored; excess amino acids are converted to fat or glucose.
D. They provide amino acids for cell growth → Correct. This is the fundamental reason proteins are essential.
Correct Answer: D. They provide amino acids for cell growth.Incorrect
Explanation: D
1. Proteins in diet:
• The body cannot make all the essential amino acids.
• Proteins in food are broken down into amino acids → used to build new proteins for growth, repair, and enzymes.
2. Check each option:
A. They are an energy source → Not their main role. Although proteins can be used for energy (4 kcal/g), this happens mainly in starvation, not their essential function.
B. They are used in synthesizing hormones → Partly true (many hormones like insulin are proteins), but this is not the primary reason they are essential.
C. They can be stored as a food reserve → Proteins are not stored; excess amino acids are converted to fat or glucose.
D. They provide amino acids for cell growth → Correct. This is the fundamental reason proteins are essential.
Correct Answer: D. They provide amino acids for cell growth. -
Question 104 of 180
104. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich blood vessels, linked directly to the heart, transport deoxygenated blood?
Correct
Explanation: C
1. Vena cava (superior & inferior):
• Bring deoxygenated blood from the body → right atrium.
2. Pulmonary artery:
• Carries deoxygenated blood from right ventricle → lungs for oxygenation.
3. Check other options:
A. Aorta + pulmonary artery → Aorta carries oxygenated blood.
B. Aorta + pulmonary vein → Both carry oxygenated blood.
C. Vena cava + pulmonary artery → Both carry deoxygenated blood.
D. Vena cava + pulmonary vein → Pulmonary vein carries oxygenated blood from lungs to left atrium.
Correct Answer: C. Vena cava and pulmonary artery.Incorrect
Explanation: C
1. Vena cava (superior & inferior):
• Bring deoxygenated blood from the body → right atrium.
2. Pulmonary artery:
• Carries deoxygenated blood from right ventricle → lungs for oxygenation.
3. Check other options:
A. Aorta + pulmonary artery → Aorta carries oxygenated blood.
B. Aorta + pulmonary vein → Both carry oxygenated blood.
C. Vena cava + pulmonary artery → Both carry deoxygenated blood.
D. Vena cava + pulmonary vein → Pulmonary vein carries oxygenated blood from lungs to left atrium.
Correct Answer: C. Vena cava and pulmonary artery. -
Question 105 of 180
105. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe sequence of amino acids in a protein defines its:
Correct
Explanation: A
Primary = amino acid sequence. Higher structures = folding.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Primary = amino acid sequence. Higher structures = folding. -
Question 106 of 180
106. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyA single enzyme molecule can catalyze:
Correct
Explanation: B
Enzymes are reusable catalysts and remain intact.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Enzymes are reusable catalysts and remain intact. -
Question 107 of 180
107. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhy is NAD+ essential for glycolysis to continue?
Correct
Explanation: B
NAD+ accepts electrons, forming NADH. Without regeneration of NAD⁺, glycolysis stops.Incorrect
Explanation: B
NAD+ accepts electrons, forming NADH. Without regeneration of NAD⁺, glycolysis stops. -
Question 108 of 180
108. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich type of lymphocytes are responsible for humoral immunity?
Correct
Explanation: B
B-lymphocytes differentiate into plasma cells which produce antibodies, mediating humoral immunity.Incorrect
Explanation: B
B-lymphocytes differentiate into plasma cells which produce antibodies, mediating humoral immunity. -
Question 109 of 180
109. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhy do AIDS patients die mostly from other infections, not the virus itself?
Correct
Explanation: B
HIV destroys CD4+ T-helper cells, impairing immunity. Patients become vulnerable to opportunistic infections like tuberculosis, pneumonia, and cancers.Incorrect
Explanation: B
HIV destroys CD4+ T-helper cells, impairing immunity. Patients become vulnerable to opportunistic infections like tuberculosis, pneumonia, and cancers. -
Question 110 of 180
110. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich T-cells prevent overactivation of immune response?
Correct
Explanation: C
Suppressor (regulatory) T-cells keep immune reactions in check to avoid excessive damage to host tissue.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Suppressor (regulatory) T-cells keep immune reactions in check to avoid excessive damage to host tissue. -
Question 111 of 180
111. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWho proposed the Lock and Key model of enzyme action?
Correct
Explanation: C
The Lock and Key model was proposed by Emil Fischer in 1894. According to this model, the enzyme’s active site has a specific shape that exactly fits the substrate, just like a key-fits into a lock. This explains the high specificity of enzymes. Later, Koshland introduced the Induced Fit model to refine this concept.Incorrect
Explanation: C
The Lock and Key model was proposed by Emil Fischer in 1894. According to this model, the enzyme’s active site has a specific shape that exactly fits the substrate, just like a key-fits into a lock. This explains the high specificity of enzymes. Later, Koshland introduced the Induced Fit model to refine this concept. -
Question 112 of 180
112. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyHow long does one complete cardiac cycle (systole + diastole) take in humans?
Correct
Explanation: C
Each cardiac cycle (systole + diastole) lasts about 0.8 seconds, allowing rhythmic pumping of blood.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Each cardiac cycle (systole + diastole) lasts about 0.8 seconds, allowing rhythmic pumping of blood. -
Question 113 of 180
113. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyCompetitive inhibitors work by:
Correct
Explanation: B
They compete with substrate for active site.Incorrect
Explanation: B
They compete with substrate for active site. -
Question 114 of 180
114. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe thoracic duct and right lymphatic duct finally drain lymph into which vein?
Correct
Explanation: C
Both the thoracic and right lymphatic ducts empty lymph into the subclavian veins, just before the blood enters the right atriumIncorrect
Explanation: C
Both the thoracic and right lymphatic ducts empty lymph into the subclavian veins, just before the blood enters the right atrium -
Question 115 of 180
115. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhat is the optimum pH of the enzyme catalase?
Correct
Explanation: C
Catalase is an important enzyme that breaks down hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen. Its optimum pH is around 7 (neutral pH), which allows it to function most efficiently in living cells. At pH values much lower or higher than 7, the enzyme’s activity decreases due to denaturation or alteration of the active site.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Catalase is an important enzyme that breaks down hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen. Its optimum pH is around 7 (neutral pH), which allows it to function most efficiently in living cells. At pH values much lower or higher than 7, the enzyme’s activity decreases due to denaturation or alteration of the active site. -
Question 116 of 180
116. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyLymph nodes in the cervical region mainly drain lymph from which area?
Correct
Explanation: C
Cervical nodes are located along the neck and drain lymph from the scalp, face, and pharyngeal region.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Cervical nodes are located along the neck and drain lymph from the scalp, face, and pharyngeal region. -
Question 117 of 180
117. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe cis and trans faces of Golgi apparatus differ because:
Correct
Explanation: A
Cis face (convex) receives ER vesicles; trans face (concave) modifies, sorts, and releases themIncorrect
Explanation: A
Cis face (convex) receives ER vesicles; trans face (concave) modifies, sorts, and releases them -
Question 118 of 180
118. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryFour reactions have rate constants
Reaction A: 0.11 s–1,
Reaction B: 5 moldm–3 s–1
Reaction C: 2.3 s–1
Reaction D : 1.1 moldm–3 s–1
If all the reactions involve a single reactant in rate determining step, doubling the concentration of reactant in which reaction increases the rate the most:
Correct
Explanation: C
From units of rate constant, reaction B & D are zero order reactions so changing conc. of reactants has no effect on such reactions. In reaction A & C, the reaction C has greater rate constant so doubling reactant increases its rate the most.
Units reveal order:
k in s–1 → first order (A, C): doubling [reactant] doubles rate.
k in mol dm–3 s–1 → zero order (B, D): rate does not depend on concentration → no increase.
Among first‑order, Reaction C has the larger k (2.3 s–1 vs 0.11 s–1), so for the same starting [A] the absolute rate increase is greatest for C.Incorrect
Explanation: C
From units of rate constant, reaction B & D are zero order reactions so changing conc. of reactants has no effect on such reactions. In reaction A & C, the reaction C has greater rate constant so doubling reactant increases its rate the most.
Units reveal order:
k in s–1 → first order (A, C): doubling [reactant] doubles rate.
k in mol dm–3 s–1 → zero order (B, D): rate does not depend on concentration → no increase.
Among first‑order, Reaction C has the larger k (2.3 s–1 vs 0.11 s–1), so for the same starting [A] the absolute rate increase is greatest for C. -
Question 119 of 180
119. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryE/m value for a positive particle is larger when:
Correct
Explanation: D
For a positive particle, the greater the positive charge & lesser the mass, e/m value is large.
The e/m ratio means charge-to-mass ratio q/m. For a positive particle (like a nucleus or positive ion), q = +Ze and m ≈ Amu, so
e/m ∝ Z/A.
This ratio is larger when the particle is lighter (small A ).
• A (uncharged): q = 0 ⇒ e/m = 0 – smallest possible.
• B (more neutrons): increases A without increasing Z → decreases e/m.
• C (more protons): increases Z but also increases A; in heavier nuclei Z/A ≈ 0.5, so e/m does not get larger overall.
• D (small nucleus): small A gives larger Z/A (max for 1H, where Z/A = 1 ), hence largest e/m.
Example: proton q/m = e/mp ; alpha particle q/m=2e/4mp = 1/2 (e/mp ) – smaller nucleus ⇒ larger e/m.Incorrect
Explanation: D
For a positive particle, the greater the positive charge & lesser the mass, e/m value is large.
The e/m ratio means charge-to-mass ratio q/m. For a positive particle (like a nucleus or positive ion), q = +Ze and m ≈ Amu, so
e/m ∝ Z/A.
This ratio is larger when the particle is lighter (small A ).
• A (uncharged): q = 0 ⇒ e/m = 0 – smallest possible.
• B (more neutrons): increases A without increasing Z → decreases e/m.
• C (more protons): increases Z but also increases A; in heavier nuclei Z/A ≈ 0.5, so e/m does not get larger overall.
• D (small nucleus): small A gives larger Z/A (max for 1H, where Z/A = 1 ), hence largest e/m.
Example: proton q/m = e/mp ; alpha particle q/m=2e/4mp = 1/2 (e/mp ) – smaller nucleus ⇒ larger e/m. -
Question 120 of 180
120. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryWhich of the given is not a postulate of kinetic molecular theory of gases:
Correct
Explanation: A
Incorrect
Explanation: A

-
Question 121 of 180
121. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryTrue statement about intermolecular forces:
A. Are stronger than intramolecular forces
B. London forces are only found in polar molecules
C. H bond in NH3 is stronger at 25°c than London forces in iodine solid
D. London forces increase in magnitude with increasing size.Correct
Explanation: D
London forces depend strongly on size, the greater the size the greater the IM forces.
A: Intermolecular forces are weaker than intramolecular bonds.
B: London (dispersion) forces are present in all molecules (polar and nonpolar).
C: H‑bonding in NH3 is weaker than the strong dispersion forces that hold solid I2 together at room temperature — so this is false.
D: True — dispersion forces grow with polarizability/size (more electrons).Incorrect
Explanation: D
London forces depend strongly on size, the greater the size the greater the IM forces.
A: Intermolecular forces are weaker than intramolecular bonds.
B: London (dispersion) forces are present in all molecules (polar and nonpolar).
C: H‑bonding in NH3 is weaker than the strong dispersion forces that hold solid I2 together at room temperature — so this is false.
D: True — dispersion forces grow with polarizability/size (more electrons). -
Question 122 of 180
122. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryCO2 has 4 bonds and no lone pair. Its molecular geometry is similar to that of:
A. SO2
B. NO2
C. BeCl2
D. CH4Correct
Explanation: C
CO2 is AX2 with no lone pairs on C → linear. Among the options, BeCl2 is also linear. (SO2, NO2 are bent; CH4 is tetrahedral.).Incorrect
Explanation: C
CO2 is AX2 with no lone pairs on C → linear. Among the options, BeCl2 is also linear. (SO2, NO2 are bent; CH4 is tetrahedral.). -
Question 123 of 180
123. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryFor a system at chemical equilibrium in which the forward reaction progresses to a greater extent (i.e., the equilibrium lies to the right), which of the following is a characteristic of the forward reaction?
Correct
Explanation: B
For a reversible elementary reaction, Kc = kfwd/krev. so if the forward rate constant kf is larger than the reverse rate constant kr, then Kc>1 and the equilibrium “lies to the right,” meaning the forward reaction progresses to a greater extent.
A. “Its rate increases to a maximum at equilibrium.”
Typically, if you start with reactants only, the forward rate is highest at the start (when reactant concentrations are largest) and decreases as reactants are consumed. At equilibrium it is nonzero but not maximal.
C. “It is faster if reactants are stable.”
Reaction rate depends on the activation energy. More stable (lower‑energy) reactants often imply a higher barrier to the transition state, so there is no general rule that “more stable reactants → faster forward reaction.” Often it’s the opposite.
D. “It is not equal to reverse reaction at equilibrium.”
By definition of dynamic equilibrium, forward and reverse rates are equal (though each is nonzero). Hence this statement is false.Incorrect
Explanation: B
For a reversible elementary reaction, Kc = kfwd/krev. so if the forward rate constant kf is larger than the reverse rate constant kr, then Kc>1 and the equilibrium “lies to the right,” meaning the forward reaction progresses to a greater extent.
A. “Its rate increases to a maximum at equilibrium.”
Typically, if you start with reactants only, the forward rate is highest at the start (when reactant concentrations are largest) and decreases as reactants are consumed. At equilibrium it is nonzero but not maximal.
C. “It is faster if reactants are stable.”
Reaction rate depends on the activation energy. More stable (lower‑energy) reactants often imply a higher barrier to the transition state, so there is no general rule that “more stable reactants → faster forward reaction.” Often it’s the opposite.
D. “It is not equal to reverse reaction at equilibrium.”
By definition of dynamic equilibrium, forward and reverse rates are equal (though each is nonzero). Hence this statement is false. -
Question 124 of 180
124. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryIn a redox reaction, the specie whose oxidation number is increased is:
Correct
Explanation: B
Species whose oxidation state increases is oxidized itself so it is a reducing agent.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Species whose oxidation state increases is oxidized itself so it is a reducing agent. -
Question 125 of 180
125. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryStandard Units of specific heat capacity are:
A. JK–1
B. Cal K–1 mol–1
C. Jg–1 K–1
D. Cal g–1 K–1Correct
Explanation: C
Heat capacity is energy per unit mass per kelvin. SI uses kg (J kg⁻¹ K⁻¹), but among the given choices the correct form is per gram: J g⁻¹ K⁻¹.
A is heat capacity; B is molar heat capacity.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Heat capacity is energy per unit mass per kelvin. SI uses kg (J kg⁻¹ K⁻¹), but among the given choices the correct form is per gram: J g⁻¹ K⁻¹.
A is heat capacity; B is molar heat capacity. -
Question 126 of 180
126. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryIn complete decomposition of 2 moles of CaCO3, 89.6g of CaO was obtained. %age yield of the reaction is?
Correct
Explanation: B
Acc to equation CaCO3 → CaO + CO2
Moles of CaO = 89.6g/56 = 1.6 moles
2 moles of CaCO3 should give 2 moles of CaO but we obtained 1.6 moles, so yield = 1.6/2 ⨯ 100 = 80%.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Acc to equation CaCO3 → CaO + CO2
Moles of CaO = 89.6g/56 = 1.6 moles
2 moles of CaCO3 should give 2 moles of CaO but we obtained 1.6 moles, so yield = 1.6/2 ⨯ 100 = 80%. -
Question 127 of 180
127. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryEnergy of a photon is related to its frequency , wavelength & wavenumber. What is the correct relation:
Correct
Explanation: B
Incorrect
Explanation: B

-
Question 128 of 180
128. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryIf the pressure of a gas is doubled & temperature is increased from 25°C to 55°C. The volume of gas:
Correct
Explanation: C
Combined gas law PV/T = constant. With P2 = 2P1, T1 = 298 K(25° C), T2 = 328 K(55° C):
V2/V1 = T2/T1 ⋅P1/P2 = 328/298 ⋅ 1/2 ≈ 0.55
So the volume decreases (∼45% smaller).Incorrect
Explanation: C
Combined gas law PV/T = constant. With P2 = 2P1, T1 = 298 K(25° C), T2 = 328 K(55° C):
V2/V1 = T2/T1 ⋅P1/P2 = 328/298 ⋅ 1/2 ≈ 0.55
So the volume decreases (∼45% smaller). -
Question 129 of 180
129. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryVapor pressure is maximum for which of the given liquids:
Correct
Explanation: D
Higher vapor pressure ↔ weaker intermolecular forces ↔ greater volatility. Among the choices, diethyl ether (no H‑bond donors, low boiling point ≈ 35 °C) is most volatile; water and formic acid have strong H‑bonding; ethanol is intermediate.
Diethyl ether has lowest IM forces & lowest b.pt so highest VP.Incorrect
Explanation: D
Higher vapor pressure ↔ weaker intermolecular forces ↔ greater volatility. Among the choices, diethyl ether (no H‑bond donors, low boiling point ≈ 35 °C) is most volatile; water and formic acid have strong H‑bonding; ethanol is intermediate.
Diethyl ether has lowest IM forces & lowest b.pt so highest VP. -
Question 130 of 180
130. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryTrue statement regarding sigma & pi bonds:
Correct
Explanation: D
P-p overlap can give rise to sigma as well as pi bond e.g. in N2 first bond formed by p p overlap is sigma, rest 2 bonds formed by p p overlap are pi.
Hint: σ can be s–s, s–p, p–p (head-on); π is side-by-side p–p.Incorrect
Explanation: D
P-p overlap can give rise to sigma as well as pi bond e.g. in N2 first bond formed by p p overlap is sigma, rest 2 bonds formed by p p overlap are pi.
Hint: σ can be s–s, s–p, p–p (head-on); π is side-by-side p–p. -
Question 131 of 180
131. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryBiCl3 (aq) + H2O (l) → BiOCl (s) + 2HCl (aq)
For the given reaction:
A. Adding H2O does not affect equilibrium
B. Adding BiCl3 decreases the rate of precipitate formation
C. Adding NaOH favours precipitate formation
D. Removing HCl has no effect on equilibriumCorrect
Explanation: C
BiCl3 (aq)+H2O(l) ⇌ BiOCl(s) + 2HCl(aq).
Adding NaOH consumes H+ (from HCl ): OH– +H+ → H2O→ removes product → shifts right, forming more BiOCl (Le Châtelier).
A false (dilution can shift equilibrium; water isn’t “inert” here in effect). B false (more BiCl3 increases rate/formation). D false (removing HCl shifts right).Incorrect
Explanation: C
BiCl3 (aq)+H2O(l) ⇌ BiOCl(s) + 2HCl(aq).
Adding NaOH consumes H+ (from HCl ): OH– +H+ → H2O→ removes product → shifts right, forming more BiOCl (Le Châtelier).
A false (dilution can shift equilibrium; water isn’t “inert” here in effect). B false (more BiCl3 increases rate/formation). D false (removing HCl shifts right). -
Question 132 of 180
132. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryWhich of the given processes involves oxidation of underlined element:
Correct
Explanation: D
Oxidation state of Mn is increasing from +4 in MnO2 to +7 in KMnO4.
Oxidation = increase in oxidation state.
• Mn : +4 in MnO2 → +7 in KMnO4 : oxidation.
• MnO2 → Mn2 O3:+4 → +3 (reduction).
• HClO4 → HCl : Cl + 7→-1 (reduction).
• K2Cr2O7 → CrO42– : Cr remains +6.Incorrect
Explanation: D
Oxidation state of Mn is increasing from +4 in MnO2 to +7 in KMnO4.
Oxidation = increase in oxidation state.
• Mn : +4 in MnO2 → +7 in KMnO4 : oxidation.
• MnO2 → Mn2 O3:+4 → +3 (reduction).
• HClO4 → HCl : Cl + 7→-1 (reduction).
• K2Cr2O7 → CrO42– : Cr remains +6. -
Question 133 of 180
133. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryInternal energy of a system equal to sum of:
Correct
Explanation: C
According to KP book ΔU = q + w
So, with q > 0 for heat absorbed and w > 0 for work done on the system.Incorrect
Explanation: C
According to KP book ΔU = q + w
So, with q > 0 for heat absorbed and w > 0 for work done on the system. -
Question 134 of 180
134. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryMass of excess reagent left after reacting 2 moles of N2 gas with 4 moles of H2 gas in the formation of ammonia:
Correct
Explanation: B
N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3
2 moles of N2 require 6 moles of H2
So limiting reagent is H2
According to balanced equation
3 moles of H2 react with 1 mole of N2
4 moles of H2 would react with 1.3 moles of N2
N2 left = 2-1.33 = 0.66 moles
Mass of N2 left = 0.66 or 2/3 × 28g = 18.5g.Incorrect
Explanation: B
N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3
2 moles of N2 require 6 moles of H2
So limiting reagent is H2
According to balanced equation
3 moles of H2 react with 1 mole of N2
4 moles of H2 would react with 1.3 moles of N2
N2 left = 2-1.33 = 0.66 moles
Mass of N2 left = 0.66 or 2/3 × 28g = 18.5g. -
Question 135 of 180
135. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryOrbitals that donot have unpaired electrons in given configurations are:
Correct
Explanation: C
“No unpaired electrons” means all electrons are paired in that subshell.
• A: s1 has one electron → 1 unpaired.
• B: p5 leaves one orbital singly occupied → 1 unpaired.
• C: f14 fills all 7f orbitals with pairs → 0 unpaired (correct).
• D: d8 leaves two singly occupied orbitals →2 unpaired.
F orbital holds a maximum of 14 electrons so it has all paired electrons when there are 14 electrons present in f orbital.Incorrect
Explanation: C
“No unpaired electrons” means all electrons are paired in that subshell.
• A: s1 has one electron → 1 unpaired.
• B: p5 leaves one orbital singly occupied → 1 unpaired.
• C: f14 fills all 7f orbitals with pairs → 0 unpaired (correct).
• D: d8 leaves two singly occupied orbitals →2 unpaired.
F orbital holds a maximum of 14 electrons so it has all paired electrons when there are 14 electrons present in f orbital. -
Question 136 of 180
136. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryWhen a graph is plotted for quantitative equation of Charle’s law & is extrapolated, it intersects with “x axis” at a point called:
Correct
Explanation: B
Graph of quantitative Charle’s law is extrapolated & it intersects x axis at
–273°C or 0K where vol of gas becomes zero.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Graph of quantitative Charle’s law is extrapolated & it intersects x axis at
–273°C or 0K where vol of gas becomes zero. -
Question 137 of 180
137. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryCorrect order of boiling point of given liquids:
A. NH3 > H2O > HF
B. HF > H2O > NH3
C. H2O > NH3 > HF
D. H2O > HF > NH3Correct
Explanation: D
Though H bond is stronger in HF but the number of hydrogen bonds is greater in H2O so, H2O has greatest boiling point followed by HF & NH3.
Details: All three can H‑bond, but water forms a 3‑D network (2 donors + 2 acceptors) → highest b.p. HF has strong, but linear-chain H‑bonding → intermediate b.p. NH3 has weaker H‑bonding (only one lone pair, less effective network) → lowest.Incorrect
Explanation: D
Though H bond is stronger in HF but the number of hydrogen bonds is greater in H2O so, H2O has greatest boiling point followed by HF & NH3.
Details: All three can H‑bond, but water forms a 3‑D network (2 donors + 2 acceptors) → highest b.p. HF has strong, but linear-chain H‑bonding → intermediate b.p. NH3 has weaker H‑bonding (only one lone pair, less effective network) → lowest. -
Question 138 of 180
138. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryStrongest bond with hydrogen is found between:
A. Sp – s
B. Sp2 – s
C. Sp3 – s
D. All have same strengthCorrect
Explanation: A
Sp hybrid orbital forms bond with hydrogen that is more-strong than sp2 & sp3 due to greater s character.
Greater s‑character → shorter, stronger bonds to H.
sp (50% s) > sp² (33%) > sp³ (25%). So sp–s is strongest.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Sp hybrid orbital forms bond with hydrogen that is more-strong than sp2 & sp3 due to greater s character.
Greater s‑character → shorter, stronger bonds to H.
sp (50% s) > sp² (33%) > sp³ (25%). So sp–s is strongest. -
Question 139 of 180
139. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryAt a certain temperature, solubility of CaF2 is 2.5 × 10–4 mol/dm3. If its Ksp is 3.9 × 10–11 & heat of solution is +11.5 KJ/mol choose the correct statement:
A. More CaF2 can dissolve to make I.P = Ksp
B. on heating the solubility product Ksp of CaF2 decreases
C. Precipitation occurs
D. CaF2 can dissolve more on coolingCorrect
Explanation: C
At the given temp, solubility is 2.5 × 10–4 so, ionic product is greater than Ksp. Hence precipitation will occur to make IP = KSp.
For CaF2 s ⇌ Ca2+ +2F–, if s = 2.5 × 10–4 M:
IP = [Ca2+] [F–]2 = s(2s)2 = 4s3
Compute carefully:
• s2 = (2.5 × 10–4)2 = 6.25 × 10–8
• s3 = (6.25 × 10–8)(2.5 × 10–4) = 15.625 × 10–12 = 1.5625 × 10–11
• 4s3 = 4 × 1.5625 × 10–11 = 6.25 × 10–11
Compare: 6.25 × 10–11 > 3.9×10–11 = Ksp → Précipitation Occurs.
A. is false because IP > Ksp.
B. is false because ΔHsol >0 ⇒ Ksp increases with temperature.
D. is false because endothermic dissolution means solubility decreases on cooling.Incorrect
Explanation: C
At the given temp, solubility is 2.5 × 10–4 so, ionic product is greater than Ksp. Hence precipitation will occur to make IP = KSp.
For CaF2 s ⇌ Ca2+ +2F–, if s = 2.5 × 10–4 M:
IP = [Ca2+] [F–]2 = s(2s)2 = 4s3
Compute carefully:
• s2 = (2.5 × 10–4)2 = 6.25 × 10–8
• s3 = (6.25 × 10–8)(2.5 × 10–4) = 15.625 × 10–12 = 1.5625 × 10–11
• 4s3 = 4 × 1.5625 × 10–11 = 6.25 × 10–11
Compare: 6.25 × 10–11 > 3.9×10–11 = Ksp → Précipitation Occurs.
A. is false because IP > Ksp.
B. is false because ΔHsol >0 ⇒ Ksp increases with temperature.
D. is false because endothermic dissolution means solubility decreases on cooling. -
Question 140 of 180
140. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryIn balancing by ion electron method in acidic medium, to balance oxygen atoms:
A. OH– can be added to other side
B. H+ can be added to other side
C. H2O can be added to other side
D. OH– can be added to same sideCorrect
Explanation: C
In acidic medium (ion‑electron method): balance O by adding H2O; then balance H by adding H⁺; finally balance charge with electrons. (Adding OH⁻ is for basic medium.).Incorrect
Explanation: C
In acidic medium (ion‑electron method): balance O by adding H2O; then balance H by adding H⁺; finally balance charge with electrons. (Adding OH⁻ is for basic medium.). -
Question 141 of 180
141. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryH(g) + H(g) → H2(g). The enthalpy change for given process is -436KJ/mol. Enthalpy of atomization for hydrogen is:
Correct
Explanation: D
Enthalpy of atomization is denoted by
1/2 H2(g) → H(g)
It is half of endothermic bond energy of hydrogen so
Hat = +436KJ/mol ÷ 2 = 218KJ/mol.Incorrect
Explanation: D
Enthalpy of atomization is denoted by
1/2 H2(g) → H(g)
It is half of endothermic bond energy of hydrogen so
Hat = +436KJ/mol ÷ 2 = 218KJ/mol. -
Question 142 of 180
142. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryThe common ion effect is least significant in:
A. HCN + KCN
B. NH4OH + NH4Cl
C. HCl + NaCl
D. CH3COOH + CH3COONaCorrect
Explanation: C
The common‑ion effect significantly suppresses the ionization of weak acids/bases when a salt supplying a common ion is added (Le Châtelier’s principle).
HCN + KCN, NH4OH + NH4Cl, and CH3COOH + CH3COONa all pair a weak acid/base with its salt → strong common‑ion effect.
HCl is a strong acid, already essentially fully dissociated, so adding NaCl (common Cl–) does not appreciably change its dissociation or the solution’s [H+]. Hence, the effect is least significant for HCl + NaCl.Incorrect
Explanation: C
The common‑ion effect significantly suppresses the ionization of weak acids/bases when a salt supplying a common ion is added (Le Châtelier’s principle).
HCN + KCN, NH4OH + NH4Cl, and CH3COOH + CH3COONa all pair a weak acid/base with its salt → strong common‑ion effect.
HCl is a strong acid, already essentially fully dissociated, so adding NaCl (common Cl–) does not appreciably change its dissociation or the solution’s [H+]. Hence, the effect is least significant for HCl + NaCl. -
Question 143 of 180
143. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryWhich of following cannot be calculated directly using principal quantum number:
Correct
Explanation: D
From the principal quantum number n alone you can get:
A: Number of subshells =n (for l = 0 to n – 1 ).
B: Number of orbitals in the shell =n2 (often what “sub-subshells” intends).
C: Maximum electrons in the shell =2n2.
D: Cannot be fixed from n alone because a subshell’s capacity is 4l + 2, which depends on l, not just n.Incorrect
Explanation: D
From the principal quantum number n alone you can get:
A: Number of subshells =n (for l = 0 to n – 1 ).
B: Number of orbitals in the shell =n2 (often what “sub-subshells” intends).
C: Maximum electrons in the shell =2n2.
D: Cannot be fixed from n alone because a subshell’s capacity is 4l + 2, which depends on l, not just n. -
Question 144 of 180
144. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryIdeal gas has which of the given characteristics:
Correct
Explanation: D
Ideal gases follow gas laws under all conditions of temperature & pressure.
An ideal gas (by definition) has point particles with no intermolecular forces and obeys PV=nRT perfectly.
A: Large molar mass is not a defining trait.
B: Forces are not strong (assumed zero).
C: Molecular volume is negligible, not “considerable.”
D: Correct characterization of an ideal gas (idealized behavior under all conditions).Incorrect
Explanation: D
Ideal gases follow gas laws under all conditions of temperature & pressure.
An ideal gas (by definition) has point particles with no intermolecular forces and obeys PV=nRT perfectly.
A: Large molar mass is not a defining trait.
B: Forces are not strong (assumed zero).
C: Molecular volume is negligible, not “considerable.”
D: Correct characterization of an ideal gas (idealized behavior under all conditions). -
Question 145 of 180
145. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryDensity of water at 4°c is maximum because:
A. It expands both below 4°c and above it.
B. Mass is greatest at 4°c
C. Number of hydrogen bonds is greatest at 4°c
D. Volume of water is highCorrect
Explanation: A
Below 4°c water starts expanding as it form ice at 0°c with a greater volume & above 4°c it also expands due to weakening of IM forces at higher temp. So vol is least at 4°c & density is maximum.
B: Mass doesn’t change.
C: Maximum H‑bonding occurs nearer ice; at 4 °C it’s not the greatest.
D: Volume is minimum at 4 °C, not high.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Below 4°c water starts expanding as it form ice at 0°c with a greater volume & above 4°c it also expands due to weakening of IM forces at higher temp. So vol is least at 4°c & density is maximum.
B: Mass doesn’t change.
C: Maximum H‑bonding occurs nearer ice; at 4 °C it’s not the greatest.
D: Volume is minimum at 4 °C, not high. -
Question 146 of 180
146. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryIonic character for a bond is maximum when:
Correct
Explanation: A
Ionic character of bond is maximum when electronegativity difference between bonded atoms is maximum leading to high dipole moment & greater ionic character.
B and C are incorrect (large bond length doesn’t ensure more ionic; same atoms give zero ionic character).Incorrect
Explanation: A
Ionic character of bond is maximum when electronegativity difference between bonded atoms is maximum leading to high dipole moment & greater ionic character.
B and C are incorrect (large bond length doesn’t ensure more ionic; same atoms give zero ionic character). -
Question 147 of 180
147. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryAcidic buffer neutralizes a base being added from outside through:
Correct
Explanation: B
Acidic buffer uses H+ from unionized acid to neutralize base being added from outside. E.g.
CH3COOH + OH– → CH3COO– + H2O.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Acidic buffer uses H+ from unionized acid to neutralize base being added from outside. E.g.
CH3COOH + OH– → CH3COO– + H2O. -
Question 148 of 180
148. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryStandard electrode potential of a metal strip is measured under conditions:
Correct
Explanation: C
Standard electrode potential is measured at 25°c temp, 1atm pressure & 1M salt solution.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Standard electrode potential is measured at 25°c temp, 1atm pressure & 1M salt solution. -
Question 149 of 180
149. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryThe enthalpies of formation CO(g), CO2(g), N2O(g) and N2O4(g) are − 110, − 393, 81 and 9.7 KJ/mol, respectively. Find the value of ΔH for the reaction.
N2O4(g) + 3CO → N2O(g) + 3 CO2 (g).Correct
Explanation: A
Incorrect
Explanation: A

-
Question 150 of 180
150. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryWavelength is higher for photons of:
Correct
Explanation: D
For the H – atom, transitions to higher n1 (e.g., Pfund, n1 = 5 ) have smaller energy gaps → longer wavelengths. Lyman (n1 = 1) is shortest λ, then Balmer (n1 = 2), Paschen (n1 = 3), Pfund (n1 = 5) longest.
Pfund series have least energetic photons with greatest wavelengthIncorrect
Explanation: D
For the H – atom, transitions to higher n1 (e.g., Pfund, n1 = 5 ) have smaller energy gaps → longer wavelengths. Lyman (n1 = 1) is shortest λ, then Balmer (n1 = 2), Paschen (n1 = 3), Pfund (n1 = 5) longest.
Pfund series have least energetic photons with greatest wavelength -
Question 151 of 180
151. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryCrystalline solids differ from amorphous solids in that:
Correct
Explanation: B
Crystalline solids have long‑range order, a repeating lattice and a unit cell, and a sharp melting point.
A: “No fixed m.p.” describes amorphous solids.
B: True — crystals have regular (periodic) geometry.
C: Crystals do have a unit cell; amorphous solids do not.
D: “Crystallites” are small ordered regions often discussed in polycrystalline or semi‑crystalline materials, not the defining feature distinguishing all crystals from amorphous solids.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Crystalline solids have long‑range order, a repeating lattice and a unit cell, and a sharp melting point.
A: “No fixed m.p.” describes amorphous solids.
B: True — crystals have regular (periodic) geometry.
C: Crystals do have a unit cell; amorphous solids do not.
D: “Crystallites” are small ordered regions often discussed in polycrystalline or semi‑crystalline materials, not the defining feature distinguishing all crystals from amorphous solids. -
Question 152 of 180
152. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryCatalyst employed to speed up the rate of ammonia formation in Haber’s process is:
A. V2O5
B. Ni
C. Finely divided Fe
D. M2O3Correct
Explanation: C
Haber’s process uses iron (with promoters like K2O/Al2O3) as catalyst.
(V2O5 is for Contact process; Ni is for hydrogenation.).Incorrect
Explanation: C
Haber’s process uses iron (with promoters like K2O/Al2O3) as catalyst.
(V2O5 is for Contact process; Ni is for hydrogenation.). -
Question 153 of 180
153. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistrySHE has electrode made of:
A. Graphite
B. Platinum
C. H2 gas bubbled on Pt metal
D. AluminiumCorrect
Explanation: C
SHE has electrode made of H2 gas being bubbled into 1M HCl solution at 1atm pressure & 25°c using Pt electrode with Pt black.Incorrect
Explanation: C
SHE has electrode made of H2 gas being bubbled into 1M HCl solution at 1atm pressure & 25°c using Pt electrode with Pt black. -
Question 154 of 180
154. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryWhich of the following contains the same number of molecules as 22 grams of carbon dioxide?
Correct
Explanation: A
22g of CO2 = 22/44 = 0.5 mol
9g of H2O = 9/18 = 0.5 mol
No of moles are same, so no. of molecules will be same.
Others options are 1 mol.Incorrect
Explanation: A
22g of CO2 = 22/44 = 0.5 mol
9g of H2O = 9/18 = 0.5 mol
No of moles are same, so no. of molecules will be same.
Others options are 1 mol. -
Question 155 of 180
155. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryCorrect electronic configuration for Germanium (Z = 32) is:
A. [Ar] 4s2 3d2
B. [Ar] 4s2 3d10 4p1
C. [Ar) 3d10 4s2 4p2
D. [Ar] 4s2 4p6 3d6Correct
Explanation: C
Ar has 18 electrons, next 2 electrons go to 4s orbital followed by 10 electrons in 3d & last 2 in 4p for germanium.
Z = 32 (Ge) fills up to [Ar], then 4s2,3d10, then 4p2.
A: [Ar]4s2 3d2– underfills 3 d .
B: [Ar]4s2 3d10 4p1 – that’s Ga(Z = 31).
C: Correct ground-state configuration.
D: [Ar]4s2 4p6 3d6 – inconsistent ordering/occupancy.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Ar has 18 electrons, next 2 electrons go to 4s orbital followed by 10 electrons in 3d & last 2 in 4p for germanium.
Z = 32 (Ge) fills up to [Ar], then 4s2,3d10, then 4p2.
A: [Ar]4s2 3d2– underfills 3 d .
B: [Ar]4s2 3d10 4p1 – that’s Ga(Z = 31).
C: Correct ground-state configuration.
D: [Ar]4s2 4p6 3d6 – inconsistent ordering/occupancy. -
Question 156 of 180
156. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryMgO possesses greater lattice energy than CaO because:
Correct
Explanation: C
Mg has same charge but smaller size leading to greater charge density so lattice energy is high.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Mg has same charge but smaller size leading to greater charge density so lattice energy is high. -
Question 157 of 180
157. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryRate equation for an elementary reaction
2HI → H2 + I2 can be written as:
A. r = k [H2] [I2]
B. r = k [HI]
C. r = k [HI]2
D. r = k [H2] [I2] / [HI]2Correct
Explanation: C
Rate equation for elementary reaction is the product of specific rate constant & concentration of reactants raised to power of their moles.
2HI → H2 + I2 treated as elementary is bimolecular, so rate law is second order in HI.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Rate equation for elementary reaction is the product of specific rate constant & concentration of reactants raised to power of their moles.
2HI → H2 + I2 treated as elementary is bimolecular, so rate law is second order in HI. -
Question 158 of 180
158. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryOf the given, the process that is always exothermic is:
Correct
Explanation: D
Bond formation always releases energy so is exothermic
Making a bond releases energy (exothermic). Ionization and vaporization are endothermic; electron affinity is not always exothermic (e.g., second EA is endothermic).Incorrect
Explanation: D
Bond formation always releases energy so is exothermic
Making a bond releases energy (exothermic). Ionization and vaporization are endothermic; electron affinity is not always exothermic (e.g., second EA is endothermic). -
Question 159 of 180
159. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryCuSO4.5H2O possesses unit cell of type:
Correct
Explanation: C
Blue vitriol crystals CuSO4.5H2O, crystallize in the triclinic system.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Blue vitriol crystals CuSO4.5H2O, crystallize in the triclinic system. -
Question 160 of 180
160. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryIncrease in temperature increases the rate of reaction due to:
Correct
Explanation: D
All the factors contribute to high rate of reaction at higher temperatures.
Raising T increases collision frequency,
fraction of molecules with E ≥ Ea
and average kinetic energy
All contribute to faster rates.Incorrect
Explanation: D
All the factors contribute to high rate of reaction at higher temperatures.
Raising T increases collision frequency,
fraction of molecules with E ≥ Ea
and average kinetic energy
All contribute to faster rates. -
Question 161 of 180
161. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistrySilica is a type of solids called:
Correct
Explanation: C
Silica (SiO2) is a giant covalent (network) solid: extensive Si–O covalent bonding throughout the lattice.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Silica (SiO2) is a giant covalent (network) solid: extensive Si–O covalent bonding throughout the lattice. -
Question 162 of 180
162. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryAn elementary reaction has specific rate constant K= 1.2 mol-1 dm3 s–1. If the reaction involves two reactants A & B, the rate equation for the reaction is given as:
A. R = K[A]0
B. R = K [A]1 [B]0
C. R = K [A]1 [B]1
D. R = K [A]0 [B]0Correct
Explanation: C
For an elementary bimolecular step A + B → products, the rate law follows stoichiometric powers: rate = k[A][B].
Given units of k =1.2dm3 mol–1 s–1 (same as Lmol–1 s–1), this matches a second-order rate law (overall order 1 + 1 = 2) since.Incorrect
Explanation: C
For an elementary bimolecular step A + B → products, the rate law follows stoichiometric powers: rate = k[A][B].
Given units of k =1.2dm3 mol–1 s–1 (same as Lmol–1 s–1), this matches a second-order rate law (overall order 1 + 1 = 2) since. -
Question 163 of 180
163. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnglishShe ____________ in the lab for three hours.
Correct
Explanation: C
Use present perfect continuous (has/have been + V-ing) for an activity that started in the past and is still happening now, often with for/since + duration: “for three hours,” “since 9 a.m.”
Simple past describes a finished action at a finished time; past perfect needs a later past reference point.
Memory hook
Past → now and still going? → has/have been + -ing.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Use present perfect continuous (has/have been + V-ing) for an activity that started in the past and is still happening now, often with for/since + duration: “for three hours,” “since 9 a.m.”
Simple past describes a finished action at a finished time; past perfect needs a later past reference point.
Memory hook
Past → now and still going? → has/have been + -ing. -
Question 164 of 180
164. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnglishChoose the correct Sentence:
Correct
Explanation: A
Every/Each + singular noun → singular verb: “Every candidate must…”
Pronoun for indefinite singular (every/each, someone, no student, etc.) can be singular they in modern standard English: “Every candidate…bring their own…”
With a modal (must), use the base form for coordinated verbs: “must bring … and ensure …”
Why the others are wrong
B) Switches from his or her (singular) to they are referring to calculator (singular) → number mismatch; should be it is.
C) After must, the verb must be base form → ensure, not ensures.
D) Every requires a singular noun → should be Every candidate.
Memory hook
Every/Each = singular grammar; “they” is fine as the pronoun. Modal → base verb (“must bring and ensure”)Incorrect
Explanation: A
Every/Each + singular noun → singular verb: “Every candidate must…”
Pronoun for indefinite singular (every/each, someone, no student, etc.) can be singular they in modern standard English: “Every candidate…bring their own…”
With a modal (must), use the base form for coordinated verbs: “must bring … and ensure …”
Why the others are wrong
B) Switches from his or her (singular) to they are referring to calculator (singular) → number mismatch; should be it is.
C) After must, the verb must be base form → ensure, not ensures.
D) Every requires a singular noun → should be Every candidate.
Memory hook
Every/Each = singular grammar; “they” is fine as the pronoun. Modal → base verb (“must bring and ensure”) -
Question 165 of 180
165. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnglishThey refused _____________ the terms.
Correct
Explanation: D
Refuse + to-infinitive: refuse to do something → “They refused to accept the terms.”
Verbs that typically take to-infinitive: agree, decide, expect, hope, learn, offer, plan, promise, refuse, want, wish, etc.
Verbs that take -ing (gerund): admit, avoid, consider, deny, enjoy, finish, keep, mind, risk, suggest, etc. (refuse is not one of them.)
Why the others are wrong
A) accepting → After refuse, use to-infinitive, not gerund.
B) accept → The bare infinitive doesn’t follow refuse (needs to).
C) to accepting → “to” + gerund is incorrect here; refuse selects to + base verb.Incorrect
Explanation: D
Refuse + to-infinitive: refuse to do something → “They refused to accept the terms.”
Verbs that typically take to-infinitive: agree, decide, expect, hope, learn, offer, plan, promise, refuse, want, wish, etc.
Verbs that take -ing (gerund): admit, avoid, consider, deny, enjoy, finish, keep, mind, risk, suggest, etc. (refuse is not one of them.)
Why the others are wrong
A) accepting → After refuse, use to-infinitive, not gerund.
B) accept → The bare infinitive doesn’t follow refuse (needs to).
C) to accepting → “to” + gerund is incorrect here; refuse selects to + base verb. -
Question 166 of 180
166. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnglishChoose the correct Sentence :
Correct
Explanation: B
“A number of + plural noun” → plural meaning (“several”) → plural verb.
→ “A number of students are…”
“The number of + plural noun” → focuses on the count itself → singular verb.
→ “The number of students is…”
Finished past time adverbials (yesterday, last week, in 2020) take simple past, not present perfect.
Why the others are wrong
A) if the sentence were about the count itself. Also “today” suggests a present situation of absence; if you insist on “the number,” you’d typically rephrase: “The number of students absent today is high/ten/etc.”
C) “A number of student are” → noun must be plural → students.
D) “have been … yesterday” → Present perfect can’t take a finished-time marker like yesterday. Correct: “were absent yesterday.”
Memory hook
A number = many → plural verb.
The number = the count → singular verb.
Yesterday/last…/in 2020 → simple past.Incorrect
Explanation: B
“A number of + plural noun” → plural meaning (“several”) → plural verb.
→ “A number of students are…”
“The number of + plural noun” → focuses on the count itself → singular verb.
→ “The number of students is…”
Finished past time adverbials (yesterday, last week, in 2020) take simple past, not present perfect.
Why the others are wrong
A) if the sentence were about the count itself. Also “today” suggests a present situation of absence; if you insist on “the number,” you’d typically rephrase: “The number of students absent today is high/ten/etc.”
C) “A number of student are” → noun must be plural → students.
D) “have been … yesterday” → Present perfect can’t take a finished-time marker like yesterday. Correct: “were absent yesterday.”
Memory hook
A number = many → plural verb.
The number = the count → singular verb.
Yesterday/last…/in 2020 → simple past. -
Question 167 of 180
167. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnglishHe left without __________ goodbye.
Correct
Explanation: A
After a preposition (e.g., without, before, after, by, in, on, of), use a gerund (-ing form):
“He left without saying goodbye.”
Why the others are wrong
B) to say → The to-infinitive doesn’t normally follow a preposition (without).
C) say → The bare infinitive can’t follow a preposition.
D) having say → Wrong form. If you want the perfect aspect, it must be having said. (“…without having said goodbye” is correct but not offered.)
Hint:
Prep + -ing: after a preposition, attach -ing (“left without saying”).Incorrect
Explanation: A
After a preposition (e.g., without, before, after, by, in, on, of), use a gerund (-ing form):
“He left without saying goodbye.”
Why the others are wrong
B) to say → The to-infinitive doesn’t normally follow a preposition (without).
C) say → The bare infinitive can’t follow a preposition.
D) having say → Wrong form. If you want the perfect aspect, it must be having said. (“…without having said goodbye” is correct but not offered.)
Hint:
Prep + -ing: after a preposition, attach -ing (“left without saying”). -
Question 168 of 180
168. Question
1 pointsCategory: English“The city is a sleepless engine.” is:
Correct
Explanation: B
A metaphor states that one thing is another to transfer qualities: “The city is a sleepless engine.” (X is Y)
It’s not a comparison using like/as (that would be a simile).
Why the others are wrong
A) Hyperbole: exaggeration for effect (e.g., “I waited forever”). Here the effect comes from identity mapping, not overstatement.
C) Personification: giving human traits to non-humans (e.g., “the city whispers”). While “sleepless” hints at human-like quality, the central device is the equation “city = engine,” i.e., metaphor.
D) Metonymy: substitution by a related thing (e.g., “the crown” for the monarchy). Not happening here.
Hint:
Is = Metaphor. If the sentence says is/are to equate two unlike things, think metaphor.Incorrect
Explanation: B
A metaphor states that one thing is another to transfer qualities: “The city is a sleepless engine.” (X is Y)
It’s not a comparison using like/as (that would be a simile).
Why the others are wrong
A) Hyperbole: exaggeration for effect (e.g., “I waited forever”). Here the effect comes from identity mapping, not overstatement.
C) Personification: giving human traits to non-humans (e.g., “the city whispers”). While “sleepless” hints at human-like quality, the central device is the equation “city = engine,” i.e., metaphor.
D) Metonymy: substitution by a related thing (e.g., “the crown” for the monarchy). Not happening here.
Hint:
Is = Metaphor. If the sentence says is/are to equate two unlike things, think metaphor. -
Question 169 of 180
169. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnglishChoose the correct Sentence :
Correct
Explanation: A
Frequency adverbs (often, usually, always, never) typically go before the main verb but after “be.”
→ “She often goes …” / “She is often late.”
Adjunct order: place/time commonly follows the verb phrase → “…to the gym before work.”
Keep verb phrases intact; don’t split them awkwardly with adverbs unless idiomatic.
Why the others are wrong
B) “Often she goes to the gym before work goes.”
Fronting “Often” is okay with a comma (“Often, she goes …”), but “…before work goes” is ungrammatical/illogical (work doesn’t “go”).
C) “She goes to the gym often before work is.”
“before work is” is incomplete (is what?). Also adverb placement is clumsy.
D) “She goes to often the gym …”
Misplaced adverb: should be “often goes” or “goes to the gym often.”Incorrect
Explanation: A
Frequency adverbs (often, usually, always, never) typically go before the main verb but after “be.”
→ “She often goes …” / “She is often late.”
Adjunct order: place/time commonly follows the verb phrase → “…to the gym before work.”
Keep verb phrases intact; don’t split them awkwardly with adverbs unless idiomatic.
Why the others are wrong
B) “Often she goes to the gym before work goes.”
Fronting “Often” is okay with a comma (“Often, she goes …”), but “…before work goes” is ungrammatical/illogical (work doesn’t “go”).
C) “She goes to the gym often before work is.”
“before work is” is incomplete (is what?). Also adverb placement is clumsy.
D) “She goes to often the gym …”
Misplaced adverb: should be “often goes” or “goes to the gym often.” -
Question 170 of 180
170. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnglishChoose the correct Sentence :
Correct
Explanation: B
Use at for exact clock times: at 3:30 p.m. (or at 15.30 in 24-hour format).
Use on for days and dates: on Monday, on 5 June, on Monday, 5 June.
Natural order is time + day/date or day/date + time; both are fine:
at 15.30 on Monday or on Monday at 15.30.
Hint:
at time, on day/date, in month/year/period.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Use at for exact clock times: at 3:30 p.m. (or at 15.30 in 24-hour format).
Use on for days and dates: on Monday, on 5 June, on Monday, 5 June.
Natural order is time + day/date or day/date + time; both are fine:
at 15.30 on Monday or on Monday at 15.30.
Hint:
at time, on day/date, in month/year/period. -
Question 171 of 180
171. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnglishStatement: I didn’t see the announcement, so I missed the deadline. Choose the equivalent third conditional sentence
Correct
Explanation: C
Third conditional (past unreal, past result):
If + had + past participle, would have + past participle.
→ Regret/contrary-to-fact about the past.
Negative is typically contracted in the result: wouldn’t have + V3 (“wouldn’t have missed”).
Why the others are wrong
A. If I saw … I would have not missed…
saw (simple past) signals a second conditional (present unreal), but the result is would have + V3 (past result). This mismatches times. Also “would have not” is grammatical but sounds stilted versus “wouldn’t have.”
B. If I had seen … I will not have missed…
Uses correct if-clause form, but the main clause shifts to will (future) → wrong in conditionals describing counterfactual past.
D. If I would have seen … I wouldn’t miss…
would have in the if-clause is non-standard in formal English (use had + V3). The result clause is present conditional (wouldn’t miss) instead of wouldn’t have missed → time mismatch.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Third conditional (past unreal, past result):
If + had + past participle, would have + past participle.
→ Regret/contrary-to-fact about the past.
Negative is typically contracted in the result: wouldn’t have + V3 (“wouldn’t have missed”).
Why the others are wrong
A. If I saw … I would have not missed…
saw (simple past) signals a second conditional (present unreal), but the result is would have + V3 (past result). This mismatches times. Also “would have not” is grammatical but sounds stilted versus “wouldn’t have.”
B. If I had seen … I will not have missed…
Uses correct if-clause form, but the main clause shifts to will (future) → wrong in conditionals describing counterfactual past.
D. If I would have seen … I wouldn’t miss…
would have in the if-clause is non-standard in formal English (use had + V3). The result clause is present conditional (wouldn’t miss) instead of wouldn’t have missed → time mismatch. -
Question 172 of 180
172. Question
1 pointsCategory: Logical ReasoningWhat number comes next in the sequence 2, 6, 12, 20, 30?
Correct
Explanation: B
First differences:
6 – 2 = 4, 12 – 6 = 6
20 – 12 = 8, 30 – 20 = 10
So the differences are 4, 6, 8, 10 (increasing by 2 each time).
The next difference will be 12.
So, 30 + 12 = 42Incorrect
Explanation: B
First differences:
6 – 2 = 4, 12 – 6 = 6
20 – 12 = 8, 30 – 20 = 10
So the differences are 4, 6, 8, 10 (increasing by 2 each time).
The next difference will be 12.
So, 30 + 12 = 42 -
Question 173 of 180
173. Question
1 pointsCategory: Logical ReasoningAli is taller than Bilal, who is taller than Chen. Deepa is taller than Ali. Elif is shorter than Deepa but taller than Bilal. Who is the second tallest?
Correct
Explanation: C
Order: Deepa > Elif > Ali > Bilal > Chen.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Order: Deepa > Elif > Ali > Bilal > Chen. -
Question 174 of 180
174. Question
1 pointsCategory: Logical ReasoningI. A key bridge on the highway collapsed.
II. The logistics company missed delivery deadlines.Correct
Explanation: A
A key bridge collapse would disrupt highway traffic and routes, leading a logistics company to miss delivery deadlines. The reverse (missed deadlines causing a bridge to collapse) is implausible, and no common external cause is indicated.Incorrect
Explanation: A
A key bridge collapse would disrupt highway traffic and routes, leading a logistics company to miss delivery deadlines. The reverse (missed deadlines causing a bridge to collapse) is implausible, and no common external cause is indicated. -
Question 175 of 180
175. Question
1 pointsCategory: Logical ReasoningStatements: 1. All apples are oranges
2. Some oranges are papayas
Conclusions: I. Some apples are papayas
II. Some papayas are applesCorrect
Explanation D
Incorrect
Explanation D

-
Question 176 of 180
176. Question
1 pointsCategory: Logical ReasoningA shop offers a 20% discount on a ₨500 item, then adds 10% sales tax on the discounted price. What is the final price?
Correct
Explanation: B
20% off ₨500
discount = 0.20 × 500 = ₨100
discounted price = 500 − 100 = ₨400.
Add 10% sales tax on ₨400
tax = 0.10 × 400 = ₨40.
Final price = 400 + 40 = ₨440.Incorrect
Explanation: B
20% off ₨500
discount = 0.20 × 500 = ₨100
discounted price = 500 − 100 = ₨400.
Add 10% sales tax on ₨400
tax = 0.10 × 400 = ₨40.
Final price = 400 + 40 = ₨440. -
Question 177 of 180
177. Question
1 pointsCategory: Logical ReasoningStatement: Should governments declare 10 additional public holidays each year?
Arguments:
I. Yes. More holidays make people happy, so the economy will surely boom.
II. No. Tourists won’t visit on holidays, so revenue will crash.Correct
Explanation D
Argument I is a sweeping claim: “people happy ⇒ economy will surely boom.” Happiness doesn’t automatically translate into higher output; the causal link is unsupported and overly certain.
Argument II is also extreme and dubious: “Tourists won’t visit on holidays ⇒ revenue will crash.” Holidays often increase travel; in any case, the absolute language and one-dimensional reasoning make it weak.Incorrect
Explanation D
Argument I is a sweeping claim: “people happy ⇒ economy will surely boom.” Happiness doesn’t automatically translate into higher output; the causal link is unsupported and overly certain.
Argument II is also extreme and dubious: “Tourists won’t visit on holidays ⇒ revenue will crash.” Holidays often increase travel; in any case, the absolute language and one-dimensional reasoning make it weak. -
Question 178 of 180
178. Question
1 pointsCategory: Logical ReasoningN5V,K7T,?,E14P,B19N
Correct
Explanation C
Incorrect
Explanation C

-
Question 179 of 180
179. Question
1 pointsCategory: Logical ReasoningFive lectures A, B, C, D, E are scheduled Monday→Friday, one per day. D is immediately after B. C is before D. A is after C. E is not on Monday. Which lecture could be on Monday?
Correct
Explanation C
C, A, B, D, E is a valid schedule.
D immediately after B: B (Wed) → D (Thu)
C before D: C (Mon) before Thu
A after C: A (Tue) after Mon
E not Monday: E (Fri).Incorrect
Explanation C
C, A, B, D, E is a valid schedule.
D immediately after B: B (Wed) → D (Thu)
C before D: C (Mon) before Thu
A after C: A (Tue) after Mon
E not Monday: E (Fri). -
Question 180 of 180
180. Question
1 pointsCategory: Logical ReasoningStatement: Cases of food poisoning linked to street vendors have increased.
Courses of Action:
I. Ban eating outside.
II. License and train vendors; conduct regular hygiene inspections.Correct
Explanation B
I. Ban eating outside — Overbroad, impractical, and economically harmful; it doesn’t target the root cause (unsafe practices) and is hard to enforce.
II. License, train, and inspect — Targeted, feasible steps that directly improve hygiene and accountability while preserving livelihoods.Incorrect
Explanation B
I. Ban eating outside — Overbroad, impractical, and economically harmful; it doesn’t target the root cause (unsafe practices) and is hard to enforce.
II. License, train, and inspect — Targeted, feasible steps that directly improve hygiene and accountability while preserving livelihoods.