Test-10 2025
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Information
- Format: Online – From Home
- Total # of MCQs: 180
Biology = 81 + Physics = 36 + Chemistry = 45 + English = 9 + Logical Reasoning = 9 - Time Duration : 180 Minute (3 hours)
The Test is Programmed with Time Restriction, Which will Teach you Time Management. - No Negative Marking
So, Attempt all the Questions. - Kindly keep some rough pages and pen with you for rough work
- The Explanations of all the MCQ’s will be provided to you with Your Right & Wrong Answers on completion of this Test.
- Bismillah & Darood Sharif Phr k, Start your Test/Quiz, and Attempt it with Full Concentration.
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Question 1 of 180
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsWhen a dielectric having dielectric constant “k” is placed between two charges having force F between them, then we can say that:
Correct
Explanation: A
Incorrect
Explanation: A

-
Question 2 of 180
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsWhich of the following quantities cannot be represented by the unit “Gauss”?
Correct
Explanation: D
Magnetic field, Magnetic induction and magnetic field All define same quantity represented by symbol “B” And have SI unit of tesla
1 Tesla= 104 Gauss.
Magnetic field density → Not a standard physical quantity. There is no such defined quantity as “magnetic field density.”Incorrect
Explanation: D
Magnetic field, Magnetic induction and magnetic field All define same quantity represented by symbol “B” And have SI unit of tesla
1 Tesla= 104 Gauss.
Magnetic field density → Not a standard physical quantity. There is no such defined quantity as “magnetic field density.” -
Question 3 of 180
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsA capacitor is perfectly insulator for:
Correct
Explanation: A
A capacitor allows current to pass only when the voltage changes with time (i.e., AC).
For DC, once fully charged, no further current flows — it acts as a perfect insulator.
So, it blocks DC and passes AC.Incorrect
Explanation: A
A capacitor allows current to pass only when the voltage changes with time (i.e., AC).
For DC, once fully charged, no further current flows — it acts as a perfect insulator.
So, it blocks DC and passes AC. -
Question 4 of 180
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsThe output of rectification circuit is always a:
Correct
Explanation: C
Output of rectifier circuit is always pulsating DC.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Output of rectifier circuit is always pulsating DC. -
Question 5 of 180
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsLast line of a spectral series of a hydrogen atom has _____ wavelength than the first line of the same series:
Correct
Explanation: B
Last line is emitted when electron makes transition from infinite shell to the lower shell of respective series. Photon emitted as a result of this transition has the maximum frequency and the minimum wavelength.
• First line of a series: n2 = n1 + 1 → smallest energy difference → longest wavelength.
• Last line of a series: n2 → ∞ → maximum energy difference → shortest wavelength.
Thus, last line has lesser wavelength than the first line.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Last line is emitted when electron makes transition from infinite shell to the lower shell of respective series. Photon emitted as a result of this transition has the maximum frequency and the minimum wavelength.
• First line of a series: n2 = n1 + 1 → smallest energy difference → longest wavelength.
• Last line of a series: n2 → ∞ → maximum energy difference → shortest wavelength.
Thus, last line has lesser wavelength than the first line. -
Question 6 of 180
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsIf area of parallel plates capacitor and distance between the plates is increased by 2 times, then capacitance of this capacitor will ___________.
Correct
Explanation: D
Incorrect
Explanation: D

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Question 7 of 180
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsA wire in a closed loops is carrying current in north direction is placed inside a magnetic field directed into the page, the force acting on the wire will be in the ____________ direction.
Correct
Explanation: B
Force on a current-carrying conductor
F=I(L×B)
Current direction → North (upward on the page).
Magnetic field → into the page (denoted by × symbol).
Force → given by cross product I×B
Use right-hand rule for cross product
Point index finger (current) upward (North).
Point middle finger (magnetic field) into the page.
Then thumb shows force direction.
Result: Force is towards the West.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Force on a current-carrying conductor
F=I(L×B)
Current direction → North (upward on the page).
Magnetic field → into the page (denoted by × symbol).
Force → given by cross product I×B
Use right-hand rule for cross product
Point index finger (current) upward (North).
Point middle finger (magnetic field) into the page.
Then thumb shows force direction.
Result: Force is towards the West. -
Question 8 of 180
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsIn a purely inductive circuit, the more the frequency of AC, the ________.
Correct
Explanation: A
Reactance of inductor is given by XL = ωL = 2πf × L. It is clear from equation that more the frequency the more will be reactance. The more the reactance the lesser the current.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Reactance of inductor is given by XL = ωL = 2πf × L. It is clear from equation that more the frequency the more will be reactance. The more the reactance the lesser the current. -
Question 9 of 180
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsIf peak voltage of input AC connected to a single diode acting as a rectifier is 310 V then the average (DC) output voltage of the pulsating DC is:
Correct
Explanation: C
Voutput or Vdc of half wave rectifier = Vpeak/π = 310/3.14 ≈ 100 V.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Voutput or Vdc of half wave rectifier = Vpeak/π = 310/3.14 ≈ 100 V. -
Question 10 of 180
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsWhich of the following statements is correct regarding the activity of a radioactive element?
Correct
Explanation: D
A. Activity increases with increase in number of atoms
Yes, because A ∝ N. More atoms → more disintegrations per second.
B. Activity decreases with increase in number of half-lives
Longer half-life → smaller decay constant λ → smaller activity.
C. Activity of an element having small half-life has more activity
Shorter half-life → larger λ → higher activity.Incorrect
Explanation: D
A. Activity increases with increase in number of atoms
Yes, because A ∝ N. More atoms → more disintegrations per second.
B. Activity decreases with increase in number of half-lives
Longer half-life → smaller decay constant λ → smaller activity.
C. Activity of an element having small half-life has more activity
Shorter half-life → larger λ → higher activity. -
Question 11 of 180
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsIf you follow an electric field line between a positive and negative charge of equal magnitude, then potential at the centre of the line between the two charges is:
Correct
Explanation: D
Incorrect
Explanation: D

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Question 12 of 180
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsA proton and an electron enters into the same magnetic field from same direction with same momentum Perpendicularly, then we can say that:
Correct
Explanation: C
Radius of cyclotron: r = P/qB , so if P is same, r is same
For proton we will use right hand rule for direction (positive charge)
For electron we will use left hand rule (negative charge), Therefore they will move in opposite direction.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Radius of cyclotron: r = P/qB , so if P is same, r is same
For proton we will use right hand rule for direction (positive charge)
For electron we will use left hand rule (negative charge), Therefore they will move in opposite direction. -
Question 13 of 180
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsRoot mean square value of current is actually ___________ percent of the peak current flowing in a circuit:
Correct
Explanation: C
Incorrect
Explanation: C

-
Question 14 of 180
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsA student observes the output of a rectifier circuit on an oscilloscope. The input frequency is 60 Hz. The oscilloscope displays a waveform with a frequency of 120 Hz. Which type of rectifier circuit is likely being used?
Correct
Explanation B
The input AC signal has a frequency of 60 Hz.
A half-wave rectifier only allows one half-cycle of the AC signal, so the output frequency remains 60 Hz.
A full-wave rectifier (whether bridge or center-tapped) inverts the negative half-cycles, so the output waveform frequency becomes double the input → 120 Hz.
A half-wave rectifier with a capacitor filter smooths the waveform but still follows the fundamental frequency of 60 Hz.
A center-tapped half-wave rectifier is not a standard name — with a center-tapped transformer you usually make a full-wave rectifier, not half-wave.
Since the oscilloscope shows 120 Hz, the circuit must be a full-wave rectifier.
So the correct answer is: B. Full-wave bridge rectifier.Incorrect
Explanation B
The input AC signal has a frequency of 60 Hz.
A half-wave rectifier only allows one half-cycle of the AC signal, so the output frequency remains 60 Hz.
A full-wave rectifier (whether bridge or center-tapped) inverts the negative half-cycles, so the output waveform frequency becomes double the input → 120 Hz.
A half-wave rectifier with a capacitor filter smooths the waveform but still follows the fundamental frequency of 60 Hz.
A center-tapped half-wave rectifier is not a standard name — with a center-tapped transformer you usually make a full-wave rectifier, not half-wave.
Since the oscilloscope shows 120 Hz, the circuit must be a full-wave rectifier.
So the correct answer is: B. Full-wave bridge rectifier. -
Question 15 of 180
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsIn forward bias, as the applied voltage approaches the knee voltage, the depletion region:
Correct
Explanation: B
In forward bias, applying positive voltage reduces the barrier potential.
As the applied voltage nears the knee voltage (~0.7 V for silicon), the depletion region becomes narrower because majority carriers are pushed across the junction.
This narrowing lowers the resistance of the junction, allowing a sharp rise in current.Incorrect
Explanation: B
In forward bias, applying positive voltage reduces the barrier potential.
As the applied voltage nears the knee voltage (~0.7 V for silicon), the depletion region becomes narrower because majority carriers are pushed across the junction.
This narrowing lowers the resistance of the junction, allowing a sharp rise in current. -
Question 16 of 180
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsThe electric field intensity at any point due to a uniformly charged infinite plane non-conducting sheet is:
Correct
Explanation C
For an infinite plane sheet of uniform charge density (σ), the electric field intensity at any point is given by:
E=σ/(2ε0)
• Here, σ= surface charge density.
• ε0= permittivity of free space.
This formula comes from Gauss’s Law, applied to a cylindrical Gaussian surface (pillbox) intersecting the plane sheet.
Notice that E does not depend on the distance ( r ) from the sheet.
• Unlike a point charge (∝ 1/r2) or a line charge (∝ 1/r), the field of an infinite plane sheet remains constant everywhere.
Thus, the electric field intensity due to a uniformly charged infinite non-conducting plane sheet is independent of the distance.Incorrect
Explanation C
For an infinite plane sheet of uniform charge density (σ), the electric field intensity at any point is given by:
E=σ/(2ε0)
• Here, σ= surface charge density.
• ε0= permittivity of free space.
This formula comes from Gauss’s Law, applied to a cylindrical Gaussian surface (pillbox) intersecting the plane sheet.
Notice that E does not depend on the distance ( r ) from the sheet.
• Unlike a point charge (∝ 1/r2) or a line charge (∝ 1/r), the field of an infinite plane sheet remains constant everywhere.
Thus, the electric field intensity due to a uniformly charged infinite non-conducting plane sheet is independent of the distance. -
Question 17 of 180
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsMagnetic flux is a:
Correct
Explanation: A
Magnetic flux is a Scalar quantity because it is a dot product of magnetic field and vector area. SI unit of magnetic flux is WeberIncorrect
Explanation: A
Magnetic flux is a Scalar quantity because it is a dot product of magnetic field and vector area. SI unit of magnetic flux is Weber -
Question 18 of 180
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsInstantaneous Power loss during a quarter cycle of a purely capacitive AC circuit is:
Correct
Explanation: C
During 1st quarter = positive
During 2nd quarter = negative
During 3rd quarter = positive
During 4th quarter = negative
During half cycle = 0
During full cycle = 0.Incorrect
Explanation: C
During 1st quarter = positive
During 2nd quarter = negative
During 3rd quarter = positive
During 4th quarter = negative
During half cycle = 0
During full cycle = 0. -
Question 19 of 180
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsHalf of maximum Compton’s effect occurs when electron or photon is deflected at an angle of:
Correct
Explanation: D
Question demands half of maximum and not half of Comptons wavelength
Maximum Comptons effect occurs at 180 degrees and is equal to 2 times of Comptons wavelength
For half of maximum comptons effect = h/mc (1 – cos90) = h/mc (Comptons wavelength).Incorrect
Explanation: D
Question demands half of maximum and not half of Comptons wavelength
Maximum Comptons effect occurs at 180 degrees and is equal to 2 times of Comptons wavelength
For half of maximum comptons effect = h/mc (1 – cos90) = h/mc (Comptons wavelength). -
Question 20 of 180
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsWhen a radioactive element an alpha ray which of the following statements is incorrect?
Correct
Explanation: C
An alpha particle = He nucleus (2 protons + 2 neutrons).
When emitted:
Atomic mass number decreases by 4.
Atomic number decreases by 2 (because 2 protons are lost).
But, Losing 2 protons changes the element itself → it becomes a different element, not just an isotope of the same one.Incorrect
Explanation: C
An alpha particle = He nucleus (2 protons + 2 neutrons).
When emitted:
Atomic mass number decreases by 4.
Atomic number decreases by 2 (because 2 protons are lost).
But, Losing 2 protons changes the element itself → it becomes a different element, not just an isotope of the same one. -
Question 21 of 180
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsA student uses a copper wire and a iron wire of same length and area in an electric circuit. Both wires are connected across the same potential difference and having different resistivity. Which wire carries more current?
Correct
Explanation: A
Incorrect
Explanation: A

-
Question 22 of 180
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsLorentz force acting on charge moving parallel to both electric and magnetic field is equal to:
Correct
Explanation: A
Incorrect
Explanation: A

-
Question 23 of 180
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsA bulb blinks 100 times in 2 seconds when it is connected to a AC source, frequency of this source is:
Correct
Explanation: D
In AC, the bulb glows (or blinks) twice in each cycle: once in the positive half cycle and once in the negative half cycle.
So, Number of blinks per second = 2 × Frequency.
Blinks per second = 100/2 = 50 Blinks/second
50 = 2f ⇒ f = 25 Hz.Incorrect
Explanation: D
In AC, the bulb glows (or blinks) twice in each cycle: once in the positive half cycle and once in the negative half cycle.
So, Number of blinks per second = 2 × Frequency.
Blinks per second = 100/2 = 50 Blinks/second
50 = 2f ⇒ f = 25 Hz. -
Question 24 of 180
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsA gamma ray cannot cause pair production in space because:
Correct
Explanation: C
Pair production can only occur in vicinity of heavy nucleus as it necessary to absorb the recoil energy. As there is no heavy nucleus in space pair production cannot occur.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Pair production can only occur in vicinity of heavy nucleus as it necessary to absorb the recoil energy. As there is no heavy nucleus in space pair production cannot occur. -
Question 25 of 180
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsWhich of the following spectral series has the least wavelength?
Correct
Explanation: A
Incorrect
Explanation: A

-
Question 26 of 180
26. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsThe current in a resistor increases from 2 A to 6 A when the applied voltage is changed from 10 V to 30 V. Is the resistor ohmic?
Correct
Explanation: A
Incorrect
Explanation: A

-
Question 27 of 180
27. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsTransformer works on the principle of:
Correct
Explanation: D
Transformer works on the principle of Mutual induction, that is an application of Faraday law which in turn explains electromagnetic inductionIncorrect
Explanation: D
Transformer works on the principle of Mutual induction, that is an application of Faraday law which in turn explains electromagnetic induction -
Question 28 of 180
28. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsCobalt 60 is used in medicine and is an intense source of:
Correct
Explanation: C
Cobalt-60 is a source of gamma rays and is used in medicine.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Cobalt-60 is a source of gamma rays and is used in medicine. -
Question 29 of 180
29. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsA material having negative coefficient of resistivity means that if temperature of that material is increased, its resistance will __________.
Correct
Explanation: B
If coefficient = 0 (ideal material 》No change in resistance)
If coefficient = positive (Metals 》Increase in resistance)
If coefficient = negative (semiconductors 》Decrease in resistance).Incorrect
Explanation: B
If coefficient = 0 (ideal material 》No change in resistance)
If coefficient = positive (Metals 》Increase in resistance)
If coefficient = negative (semiconductors 》Decrease in resistance). -
Question 30 of 180
30. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsWhen applied current Ia in a coil is decreasing, the induced current produced in it as a result of self induction is Iind, then the net current flowing in the circuit is:
A. Ia – Iind
B. Ia+Iind
C. Ia
D. IindCorrect
Explanation: B
When applied current decreases, induced current in order to oppose its cause (decreasing current) will flow in a way to oppose the cause and therefore will flow in the direction of applied current and net current will be sum of induced and applied current
In short when current increases
Inet= Iapplied – Iinduced
When current decreases
Inet = Iapplied + Iinduced..Incorrect
Explanation: B
When applied current decreases, induced current in order to oppose its cause (decreasing current) will flow in a way to oppose the cause and therefore will flow in the direction of applied current and net current will be sum of induced and applied current
In short when current increases
Inet= Iapplied – Iinduced
When current decreases
Inet = Iapplied + Iinduced.. -
Question 31 of 180
31. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsIf wire having a resistance of 10 ohms is bent into a shape of a circle and battery is connected along its diametrical poles then net resistance of the circuit formed is:
Correct
Explanation: C

When wire is bend into circle 10ohm will be divided into two 5-ohm resistors connected in parallel as shown above for similar resistors connected parallel
Rn = R/n = 5/2 = 2.5 Ohm.Incorrect
Explanation: C

When wire is bend into circle 10ohm will be divided into two 5-ohm resistors connected in parallel as shown above for similar resistors connected parallel
Rn = R/n = 5/2 = 2.5 Ohm. -
Question 32 of 180
32. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsFaraday’s law are consequence of conservation:
Correct
Explanation B
Faraday’s Law of Electromagnetic Induction states that an emf is induced in a circuit whenever the magnetic flux through it changes.
The induced emf always opposes the change in flux (Lenz’s Law).
This opposition ensures that no energy is created or destroyed in the process
— it only gets converted (for example, mechanical work → electrical energy).
Thus, Faraday’s law is a direct consequence of the law of conservation of energy.Incorrect
Explanation B
Faraday’s Law of Electromagnetic Induction states that an emf is induced in a circuit whenever the magnetic flux through it changes.
The induced emf always opposes the change in flux (Lenz’s Law).
This opposition ensures that no energy is created or destroyed in the process
— it only gets converted (for example, mechanical work → electrical energy).
Thus, Faraday’s law is a direct consequence of the law of conservation of energy. -
Question 33 of 180
33. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsWhich of the following is an incorrect statement about electromagnetic waves?
Correct
Explanation C
A. In electromagnetic waves, the oscillating electric and magnetic fields are perpendicular to the direction of propagation, making them transverse.
B. EM waves are transverse, their electric field component can be oriented in specific directions (polarization).
C. Unlike sound waves, electromagnetic waves do not need a material medium. They can travel through vacuum (e.g., sunlight reaching Earth).D. In EM waves, the electric and magnetic fields oscillate mutually perpendicular and also perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation.Incorrect
Explanation C
A. In electromagnetic waves, the oscillating electric and magnetic fields are perpendicular to the direction of propagation, making them transverse.
B. EM waves are transverse, their electric field component can be oriented in specific directions (polarization).
C. Unlike sound waves, electromagnetic waves do not need a material medium. They can travel through vacuum (e.g., sunlight reaching Earth).D. In EM waves, the electric and magnetic fields oscillate mutually perpendicular and also perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation. -
Question 34 of 180
34. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsWhat happens to the terminal voltage of a cell when current increases?
Correct
Explanation B
Formula: V=E−Ir
As current (I) increases, drop across
Ir increases → terminal voltage falls.
At very high current, V→0.
Option A is wrong → Voltage does not increase; it decreases.
Option C is wrong → Terminal voltage = emf only when no current flows (open circuit).
Option D is wrong → Terminal voltage becomes zero only when
I=r/E , not always.Incorrect
Explanation B
Formula: V=E−Ir
As current (I) increases, drop across
Ir increases → terminal voltage falls.
At very high current, V→0.
Option A is wrong → Voltage does not increase; it decreases.
Option C is wrong → Terminal voltage = emf only when no current flows (open circuit).
Option D is wrong → Terminal voltage becomes zero only when
I=r/E , not always. -
Question 35 of 180
35. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsWhen a conducting ring is dropped on a top of bar magnet with South Pole facing it, it will fall with acceleration:
Correct
Explanation: B
As the ring approaches the South pole of the magnet:
The magnetic flux through the ring increases (since it’s moving closer to the magnet’s field).
Faraday’s Law:
A current is induced in the ring to oppose this increase in flux.
Lenz’s Law:
To oppose the approach of the magnet’s South pole, the side of the ring facing the magnet must behave like a North pole.
Result:
The induced North pole of the ring faces the South pole of the magnet.
North and South poles attract, but remember, the attraction is in the opposite direction of the motion (because it’s resisting the change).
This produces an upward magnetic force opposing gravity.
Net Effect on Motion:
Gravity pulls the ring down with force = mg.
Magnetic repulsion/attraction (depending on direction of flux change) acts upward.
Therefore, net acceleration < g.Incorrect
Explanation: B
As the ring approaches the South pole of the magnet:
The magnetic flux through the ring increases (since it’s moving closer to the magnet’s field).
Faraday’s Law:
A current is induced in the ring to oppose this increase in flux.
Lenz’s Law:
To oppose the approach of the magnet’s South pole, the side of the ring facing the magnet must behave like a North pole.
Result:
The induced North pole of the ring faces the South pole of the magnet.
North and South poles attract, but remember, the attraction is in the opposite direction of the motion (because it’s resisting the change).
This produces an upward magnetic force opposing gravity.
Net Effect on Motion:
Gravity pulls the ring down with force = mg.
Magnetic repulsion/attraction (depending on direction of flux change) acts upward.
Therefore, net acceleration < g. -
Question 36 of 180
36. Question
1 pointsCategory: PhysicsWhich of the following phenomenon doesn’t show the particle nature of photon?
Correct
Explanation: C
Polarization shows wave nature of photon
All other options show matter (particle) nature of photonIncorrect
Explanation: C
Polarization shows wave nature of photon
All other options show matter (particle) nature of photon -
Question 37 of 180
37. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich modern technology is used for producing recombinant proteins such as insulin?
Correct
Explanation: B
Recombinant DNA technology inserts human genes into bacteria or yeast to mass-produce proteins like insulin.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Recombinant DNA technology inserts human genes into bacteria or yeast to mass-produce proteins like insulin. -
Question 38 of 180
38. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyHow many oxygen molecules bound to hemoglobin to give 50% saturation?
Correct
Explanation: C
Hemoglobin can bind with maximum 4 oxygen molecules, so for obtaining 50% saturation only 2 molecules of oxygen should be bound to hemoglobin.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Hemoglobin can bind with maximum 4 oxygen molecules, so for obtaining 50% saturation only 2 molecules of oxygen should be bound to hemoglobin. -
Question 39 of 180
39. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich structure is not found in the renal medulla?
Correct
Explanation: D
Glomerulus is not a part of renal medulla.Incorrect
Explanation: D
Glomerulus is not a part of renal medulla. -
Question 40 of 180
40. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe function of calcium ions in muscle contraction is to:
Correct
Explanation: A
Calcium ions play a critical role in muscle contraction by binding to the troponin molecules present on the thin filaments. When calcium ions bind to troponin, it induces a conformational change in the troponin-tropomyosin complex. This change exposes the myosin-binding sites on the actin filaments, allowing the myosin heads to form cross-bridges and initiate muscle contraction.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Calcium ions play a critical role in muscle contraction by binding to the troponin molecules present on the thin filaments. When calcium ions bind to troponin, it induces a conformational change in the troponin-tropomyosin complex. This change exposes the myosin-binding sites on the actin filaments, allowing the myosin heads to form cross-bridges and initiate muscle contraction. -
Question 41 of 180
41. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe testes are male gonads having lobules:
Correct
Explanation: C
Each testis has 250 – 300 lobules.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Each testis has 250 – 300 lobules. -
Question 42 of 180
42. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhen the sperm count is high, inhibin hormone release increases which:
Correct
Explanation: A
When the sperm count exceeds set limits, The hormone inhibits GnRH and FSH, decreasing the activity of the Sertoli cells. It inhibits the synthesis and
release of the follicle-stimulating hormone in the pituitary gland and reduces the hypothalamic LH – releasing hormone content.Incorrect
Explanation: A
When the sperm count exceeds set limits, The hormone inhibits GnRH and FSH, decreasing the activity of the Sertoli cells. It inhibits the synthesis and
release of the follicle-stimulating hormone in the pituitary gland and reduces the hypothalamic LH – releasing hormone content. -
Question 43 of 180
43. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe number of linkage groups in humans is?
Correct
Explanation: B
Option B is correct since the number of linkage groups in humans is equal to the haploid number of chromosomes. The linkage groups refer to all the genes on a single chromosome. These groups are inherited together in an individual. The chromosomes in humans are 46 and their haploid number is 23. So linkage groups are also 23. Option A is incorrect since it states 1/21 which is wrong. Option C is incorrect since it states 1/23 which is wrong. Option D is incorrect since it states 1/24 which is wrong.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Option B is correct since the number of linkage groups in humans is equal to the haploid number of chromosomes. The linkage groups refer to all the genes on a single chromosome. These groups are inherited together in an individual. The chromosomes in humans are 46 and their haploid number is 23. So linkage groups are also 23. Option A is incorrect since it states 1/21 which is wrong. Option C is incorrect since it states 1/23 which is wrong. Option D is incorrect since it states 1/24 which is wrong. -
Question 44 of 180
44. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyNatural selection can amplify or diminish variations that are?
Correct
Explanation: A
The answer is heritable. Natural selection can only amplify or diminish variations that are passed on from parents to offspring. Heritable traits are those that are encoded in the genes of an organism. These traits are passed on from parents to offspring through the process of reproduction.Incorrect
Explanation: A
The answer is heritable. Natural selection can only amplify or diminish variations that are passed on from parents to offspring. Heritable traits are those that are encoded in the genes of an organism. These traits are passed on from parents to offspring through the process of reproduction. -
Question 45 of 180
45. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich type of synapse is more common in the human nervous system?
Correct
Explanation: D
Most synapses in humans are chemical, where neurotransmitters carry the signal across a wider synaptic cleft (>20 nm).Incorrect
Explanation: D
Most synapses in humans are chemical, where neurotransmitters carry the signal across a wider synaptic cleft (>20 nm). -
Question 46 of 180
46. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyLungs are made up of air-filled sacs, the alveoli. They do not collapse even after forceful expiration because of:
Correct
Explanation: D
“Alveoli do not collapse even after forceful expiration because a certain amount of air always remains in the lungs. This is called residual volume (~1200 mL). It keeps the alveoli partially inflated and ensures continuous gaseous exchange.Incorrect
Explanation: D
“Alveoli do not collapse even after forceful expiration because a certain amount of air always remains in the lungs. This is called residual volume (~1200 mL). It keeps the alveoli partially inflated and ensures continuous gaseous exchange. -
Question 47 of 180
47. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyIn dehydration, the level of ADH in blood:
Correct
Explanation: B
Level of ADH during dehydration increases in order to conserve more water in body.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Level of ADH during dehydration increases in order to conserve more water in body. -
Question 48 of 180
48. Question
1 pointsCategory: Biology______________can polarize visible light:
Correct
Explanation: D
A–band of sarcomere can polarize visible light. The A–band of a sarcomere consists of an overlap between light and heavy (actin and myosin) protein filaments. As a result, this band is denser and appears darker than surrounding regions under polarized light visualizationIncorrect
Explanation: D
A–band of sarcomere can polarize visible light. The A–band of a sarcomere consists of an overlap between light and heavy (actin and myosin) protein filaments. As a result, this band is denser and appears darker than surrounding regions under polarized light visualization -
Question 49 of 180
49. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologySyphilis a sexually transmitted disease is caused by:
Correct
Explanation B
Spirochete Treponema pallidum is responsible for causing syphilis.Incorrect
Explanation B
Spirochete Treponema pallidum is responsible for causing syphilis. -
Question 50 of 180
50. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyIf for some reason, the vasa efferentia in the human reproductive system get blocked, the gametes will not be transported from:
Correct
Explanation: A
The male sex accessory ducts include rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and vas deferens. The seminiferous tubules of the testis open into the vasa efferentia through rete testis. The vasa efferentia leave the testis and open into epididymis located along the posterior surface of each testis. So if vasa efferentia gets blocked, the gametes will not be transported from testes to epididymis.Incorrect
Explanation: A
The male sex accessory ducts include rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and vas deferens. The seminiferous tubules of the testis open into the vasa efferentia through rete testis. The vasa efferentia leave the testis and open into epididymis located along the posterior surface of each testis. So if vasa efferentia gets blocked, the gametes will not be transported from testes to epididymis. -
Question 51 of 180
51. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyHow many pairs of homologous chromosomes are present in Pisum sativum?
Correct
Explanation: C
Pisum sativum, the common Pea, normally has seven pairs of chromosomes at meiosis.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Pisum sativum, the common Pea, normally has seven pairs of chromosomes at meiosis. -
Question 52 of 180
52. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyJuxtamedullary nephrons comprise approximately what percentage of the total nephrons in the kidney?
Correct
Explanation: B
In the human kidney, about 70–80% of nephrons are cortical nephrons, which are located primarily in the renal cortex and have shorter loops of Henle. The remaining 20–30% are juxtamedullary nephrons. These nephrons are located closer to the corticomedullary junction and have long loops of Henle extending deep into the medulla. This structural feature plays a crucial role in concentrating urine by establishing the medullary osmotic gradient.Incorrect
Explanation: B
In the human kidney, about 70–80% of nephrons are cortical nephrons, which are located primarily in the renal cortex and have shorter loops of Henle. The remaining 20–30% are juxtamedullary nephrons. These nephrons are located closer to the corticomedullary junction and have long loops of Henle extending deep into the medulla. This structural feature plays a crucial role in concentrating urine by establishing the medullary osmotic gradient. -
Question 53 of 180
53. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyIn myelinated neurons, the action potential jumps from one node to another. This type of conduction is known as:
Correct
Explanation: C
The myelin sheath insulates the axon and forces the action potential to jump from one Node of Ranvier to the next, making conduction faster.Incorrect
Explanation: C
The myelin sheath insulates the axon and forces the action potential to jump from one Node of Ranvier to the next, making conduction faster. -
Question 54 of 180
54. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe figure shows a diagrammatic view of human respiratory system with labels A, B, C and D. Select the option which gives correct identification, main function and/or characteristic.
Correct
Explanation: A
Explanation of each option:
A. C- Alveoli- Thin-walled vascular bag-like structures for exchange of gases (Correct Option): The alveoli are indeed thin-walled, vascular, and resemble tiny sacs or “bag-like” structures. They are responsible for the primary function of gas exchange in the respiratory system. Oxygen is taken up by the bloodstream, and carbon dioxide is released into the alveoli to be exhaled. The thin walls and extensive vascularization of alveoli facilitate efficient gas exchange.
B. D- Lower end of lungs- Diaphragm pulls it down during inspiration: The lower end of the lungs is not directly pulled down by the diaphragm during inspiration. Instead, the diaphragm contracts and moves downward, increasing the volume of the thoracic cavity and allowing the lungs to expand and fill with air during inspiration. The diaphragm plays a crucial role in the mechanics of breathing.
C. A- Trachea- Long tube supported by complete cartilaginous rings for conducting inspired air: The trachea is indeed a long tube in the human respiratory system, but it is not supported by “complete cartilaginous rings.” Instead, the trachea is supported by C-shaped cartilaginous rings. These C-shaped rings provide support to the trachea while allowing flexibility for swallowing and neck movement. The main function of the trachea is to conduct inspired air from the upper respiratory tract (nose and mouth) into the lower respiratory tract (lungs).
D. B- Pleural membrane- Surround ribs on both sides to provide cushion against rubbing: The pleural membrane does not primarily surround the ribs. Instead, it forms a double-layered sac that surrounds the lungs and lines the inner surface of the chest wall. It consists of two layers: the visceral pleura (which covers the lungs) and the parietal pleura (which lines the chest wall). The pleural membrane’s main function is to create a sealed, fluid-filled space between the layers, reducing friction and enabling the smooth movement of the lungs during breathing.
Summary: The correct option is (A) C. Alveoli are indeed thin-walled, vascular, and responsible for gas exchange in the respiratory system. The other options provide explanations but do not accurately describe the main function or characteristics of the labeled structures.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Explanation of each option:
A. C- Alveoli- Thin-walled vascular bag-like structures for exchange of gases (Correct Option): The alveoli are indeed thin-walled, vascular, and resemble tiny sacs or “bag-like” structures. They are responsible for the primary function of gas exchange in the respiratory system. Oxygen is taken up by the bloodstream, and carbon dioxide is released into the alveoli to be exhaled. The thin walls and extensive vascularization of alveoli facilitate efficient gas exchange.
B. D- Lower end of lungs- Diaphragm pulls it down during inspiration: The lower end of the lungs is not directly pulled down by the diaphragm during inspiration. Instead, the diaphragm contracts and moves downward, increasing the volume of the thoracic cavity and allowing the lungs to expand and fill with air during inspiration. The diaphragm plays a crucial role in the mechanics of breathing.
C. A- Trachea- Long tube supported by complete cartilaginous rings for conducting inspired air: The trachea is indeed a long tube in the human respiratory system, but it is not supported by “complete cartilaginous rings.” Instead, the trachea is supported by C-shaped cartilaginous rings. These C-shaped rings provide support to the trachea while allowing flexibility for swallowing and neck movement. The main function of the trachea is to conduct inspired air from the upper respiratory tract (nose and mouth) into the lower respiratory tract (lungs).
D. B- Pleural membrane- Surround ribs on both sides to provide cushion against rubbing: The pleural membrane does not primarily surround the ribs. Instead, it forms a double-layered sac that surrounds the lungs and lines the inner surface of the chest wall. It consists of two layers: the visceral pleura (which covers the lungs) and the parietal pleura (which lines the chest wall). The pleural membrane’s main function is to create a sealed, fluid-filled space between the layers, reducing friction and enabling the smooth movement of the lungs during breathing.
Summary: The correct option is (A) C. Alveoli are indeed thin-walled, vascular, and responsible for gas exchange in the respiratory system. The other options provide explanations but do not accurately describe the main function or characteristics of the labeled structures. -
Question 55 of 180
55. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyEach A band has a lighter stripe in its midsection called:
Correct
Explanation: B
Each A band has a lighter stripe in its mid-section called H-zone (H stands for “hele” mean bright). The H-zone is bisected by dark line called M – line. The I bands have mid line called Z-line (Z for Zwishen means between).Incorrect
Explanation: B
Each A band has a lighter stripe in its mid-section called H-zone (H stands for “hele” mean bright). The H-zone is bisected by dark line called M – line. The I bands have mid line called Z-line (Z for Zwishen means between). -
Question 56 of 180
56. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhat is a normal resting membrane potential of a Neuron
Correct
Explanation C
Incorrect
Explanation C

-
Question 57 of 180
57. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe neck of sperm is very short and contains
Correct
Explanation: B
Reference: Text Book.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Reference: Text Book. -
Question 58 of 180
58. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyAhmed’s blood could not clot properly; he was diagnosed with hemophilia A. He passed this trait to his grandson through his:
Correct
Explanation: C
“Hemophilia A is an X-linked recessive disorder. Affected males (like Ahmed) have the defective gene on their single X chromosome. They cannot pass this X to their sons (sons inherit father’s Y chromosome), but they always pass it to their daughters. Thus, daughters become carriers and can transmit the gene to their own sons (Ahmed’s grandsons).
Therefore, Ahmed passed the trait to his grandson through his daughter.Incorrect
Explanation: C
“Hemophilia A is an X-linked recessive disorder. Affected males (like Ahmed) have the defective gene on their single X chromosome. They cannot pass this X to their sons (sons inherit father’s Y chromosome), but they always pass it to their daughters. Thus, daughters become carriers and can transmit the gene to their own sons (Ahmed’s grandsons).
Therefore, Ahmed passed the trait to his grandson through his daughter. -
Question 59 of 180
59. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyIn a certain flower, a blue petal phenotype is dominant to a white petal phenotype. If you cross a heterozygous flower with a homozygous recessive flower, what is the probability of inheritance for the white petal phenotype?
Correct
Explanation: B
Let allele for blue phenotype [dominant] =B, Let allele for white phenotype [recessive] =b, Parental phenotypes =Bb[heterozygous] *bb [homozygous], Phenotypic probability of white phenotypes=[1+1]/4=0.5 =50%
Incorrect
Explanation: B
Let allele for blue phenotype [dominant] =B, Let allele for white phenotype [recessive] =b, Parental phenotypes =Bb[heterozygous] *bb [homozygous], Phenotypic probability of white phenotypes=[1+1]/4=0.5 =50%

-
Question 60 of 180
60. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich part of the nephron is impermeable to water?
Correct
Explanation: B
The ascending limb actively transports Na⁺, Cl⁻, and K⁺ but does not allow water reabsorption.Incorrect
Explanation: B
The ascending limb actively transports Na⁺, Cl⁻, and K⁺ but does not allow water reabsorption. -
Question 61 of 180
61. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyCerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is produced by a combination of:
Correct
Explanation: C
CSF is formed by various processes including diffusion, pinocytosis, and active transport from the blood vessels of the brain and spinal cord.Incorrect
Explanation: C
CSF is formed by various processes including diffusion, pinocytosis, and active transport from the blood vessels of the brain and spinal cord. -
Question 62 of 180
62. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyHow the transport of O2 and CO2 by blood happens?
Correct
Explanation: C
The transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide in blood mainly occurs through red blood cells (RBCs) and blood plasma.
• Oxygen (O2): About 98% of oxygen is carried by RBCs, where it binds with hemoglobin to form oxyhemoglobin. The remaining 2% is dissolved directly in plasma.
• Carbon dioxide (CO2): About 70% of CO2 is transported as bicarbonate ions in plasma, around 23% binds with hemoglobin in RBCs (as carbaminohemoglobin), and the remaining 7% is dissolved in plasma.Incorrect
Explanation: C
The transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide in blood mainly occurs through red blood cells (RBCs) and blood plasma.
• Oxygen (O2): About 98% of oxygen is carried by RBCs, where it binds with hemoglobin to form oxyhemoglobin. The remaining 2% is dissolved directly in plasma.
• Carbon dioxide (CO2): About 70% of CO2 is transported as bicarbonate ions in plasma, around 23% binds with hemoglobin in RBCs (as carbaminohemoglobin), and the remaining 7% is dissolved in plasma. -
Question 63 of 180
63. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyLarge bone cells that enzymatically break down bone tissue:
Correct
Explanation: C
Bone consists of three types of cells:
⟹ Osteoblast ⟶ Bone forming cells.
⟹ Osteoclast ⟶ Bone dissolving cells.
⟹ Osteocytes ⟶ bone cells.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Bone consists of three types of cells:
⟹ Osteoblast ⟶ Bone forming cells.
⟹ Osteoclast ⟶ Bone dissolving cells.
⟹ Osteocytes ⟶ bone cells. -
Question 64 of 180
64. Question
1 pointsCategory: Biology____________meninges is present next to the cranium?
Correct
Explanation: A
The tough outer layer of tissue that covers and protects the brain and spinal cord and is closest to the skull. The dura mater is one of the three layers that form the meninges.Incorrect
Explanation: A
The tough outer layer of tissue that covers and protects the brain and spinal cord and is closest to the skull. The dura mater is one of the three layers that form the meninges. -
Question 65 of 180
65. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyIn which of the following options is mitotic division involved?
Correct
Explanation: A
In oogenesis, diploid oogonium goes through mitosis until one develops into a primary oocyte, which will begin the first meiotic division, but then arrest; it will finish this division as it develops in the follicle, giving rise to a haploid secondary oocyte and a smaller polar body. Thus, “Option A” is the correct answer.Incorrect
Explanation: A
In oogenesis, diploid oogonium goes through mitosis until one develops into a primary oocyte, which will begin the first meiotic division, but then arrest; it will finish this division as it develops in the follicle, giving rise to a haploid secondary oocyte and a smaller polar body. Thus, “Option A” is the correct answer. -
Question 66 of 180
66. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyTwo animals are mated. One is homozygous dominant for one character and homozygous recessive for another. The other animal Is heterozygous for both characters. How many phenotypes are expected in the offspring of this cross?
Correct
Explanation: B
To understand and solve this, you can divide your thinking into two. For character 1. When genes are passed down to offspring, when the genes of this character pass down, the Dominant gene will always be present, so only one phenotype is possible from this character. For character 2. Three genotypes are possible, RR, Rr, and rr. RR and Rr are one phenotype and rr another. Total 2 So 2 × 1=2 total phenotypesIncorrect
Explanation: B
To understand and solve this, you can divide your thinking into two. For character 1. When genes are passed down to offspring, when the genes of this character pass down, the Dominant gene will always be present, so only one phenotype is possible from this character. For character 2. Three genotypes are possible, RR, Rr, and rr. RR and Rr are one phenotype and rr another. Total 2 So 2 × 1=2 total phenotypes -
Question 67 of 180
67. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThose individuals whose hereditary characteristics fit them best to their environment are likely to leave ____________ than the less fit individuals:
Correct
Explanation: A
Survival in the struggle for existence is not random, but depends in part on the hereditary constitution of the surviving individuals. Those individuals whose inherited characteristics it them best to their environment are likely to leave more offspring than the less-it individuals.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Survival in the struggle for existence is not random, but depends in part on the hereditary constitution of the surviving individuals. Those individuals whose inherited characteristics it them best to their environment are likely to leave more offspring than the less-it individuals. -
Question 68 of 180
68. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe distal convoluted tubule helps in controlling pH by:
Correct
Explanation: B
DCT has osmoregulatory role and secretes hydrogen ions to regulate blood pH.Incorrect
Explanation: B
DCT has osmoregulatory role and secretes hydrogen ions to regulate blood pH. -
Question 69 of 180
69. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe midbrain helps in:
Correct
Explanation: C
The midbrain is involved in spatial awareness and processes visual and auditory information.Incorrect
Explanation: C
The midbrain is involved in spatial awareness and processes visual and auditory information. -
Question 70 of 180
70. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich of the following is not a function of surfactant?
Correct
Explanation: A
Surfactants is a lipoprotein layer inside alveoli, which reduce surface tension between water molecules to increase gases exchange.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Surfactants is a lipoprotein layer inside alveoli, which reduce surface tension between water molecules to increase gases exchange. -
Question 71 of 180
71. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyName the ion responsible for unmasking of active sites for myosin for crossbridge activity during muscle contraction.
Correct
Explanation: A
Calcium ion plays an important role in muscle contraction. Calcium ions bind to troponin causing a change in its shape and position. Thus, in turn alters shape and position of tropomyosin to
which troponin binds. This shift exposes the active sites on F–actin molecules. Hence, myosin cross bridges are then able to bind to these active sites.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Calcium ion plays an important role in muscle contraction. Calcium ions bind to troponin causing a change in its shape and position. Thus, in turn alters shape and position of tropomyosin to
which troponin binds. This shift exposes the active sites on F–actin molecules. Hence, myosin cross bridges are then able to bind to these active sites. -
Question 72 of 180
72. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyIn active membrane potential, inner side of membrane potential is more:
Correct
Explanation: A
In action membrane potential, charges are reversed. The inner side of the cell membrane has excess of positive ions (thus positive charges) at its internal surface, and the outer surface becomes more negative.Incorrect
Explanation: A
In action membrane potential, charges are reversed. The inner side of the cell membrane has excess of positive ions (thus positive charges) at its internal surface, and the outer surface becomes more negative. -
Question 73 of 180
73. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyIn human females, oocytes are held in the second metaphase until ________.
Correct
Explanation: D
“In human females, oogenesis begins before birth, and primary oocytes are arrested in prophase I until puberty. Each month, during ovulation, one oocyte resumes meiosis and is arrested again at metaphase II. The oocyte will only complete meiosis II if a sperm penetrates it.
Thus, oocytes are held in second metaphase until fertilization.Incorrect
Explanation: D
“In human females, oogenesis begins before birth, and primary oocytes are arrested in prophase I until puberty. Each month, during ovulation, one oocyte resumes meiosis and is arrested again at metaphase II. The oocyte will only complete meiosis II if a sperm penetrates it.
Thus, oocytes are held in second metaphase until fertilization. -
Question 74 of 180
74. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyA monohybrid cross yielded 3:1 in F2. What could be mode of inheritance?
Correct
Explanation: A
The principle of segregation states that each individual has two alleles for each gene, and these alleles segregate during gamete formation, with each gamete receiving only one allele. A 3:1 ratio in the F2 generation of a monohybrid cross suggests that the trait being studied is controlled by a single gene with two alleles and follows a dominant and recessive pattern of inheritance. The dominant allele is expressed in the phenotype of individuals that are homozygous dominant or heterozygous, while the recessive allele is only expressed in individuals that are homozygous recessive. Therefore, the mode of inheritance for the trait being studied is likely to be Mendel’s law of segregation.Incorrect
Explanation: A
The principle of segregation states that each individual has two alleles for each gene, and these alleles segregate during gamete formation, with each gamete receiving only one allele. A 3:1 ratio in the F2 generation of a monohybrid cross suggests that the trait being studied is controlled by a single gene with two alleles and follows a dominant and recessive pattern of inheritance. The dominant allele is expressed in the phenotype of individuals that are homozygous dominant or heterozygous, while the recessive allele is only expressed in individuals that are homozygous recessive. Therefore, the mode of inheritance for the trait being studied is likely to be Mendel’s law of segregation. -
Question 75 of 180
75. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe unequal ability of individuals to survive and reproduce will lead to a gradual change in a population, With favorable characteristics accumulating over the generations, thus leading to the:
Correct
Explanation: B
The processes of natural selection thus cause an increase of favourable alleles and a decrease of unfavourable alleles within the population, Over succeeding generations, individual members become better adapted to local conditions, thus, leading to the evolution of new speciesIncorrect
Explanation: B
The processes of natural selection thus cause an increase of favourable alleles and a decrease of unfavourable alleles within the population, Over succeeding generations, individual members become better adapted to local conditions, thus, leading to the evolution of new species -
Question 76 of 180
76. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe counter current multiplier system is mainly established in:
Correct
Explanation: B
The opposite flow of filtrate in ascending and descending limbs of loop of Henle helps concentrate solutes in medulla (counter current mechanism).Incorrect
Explanation: B
The opposite flow of filtrate in ascending and descending limbs of loop of Henle helps concentrate solutes in medulla (counter current mechanism). -
Question 77 of 180
77. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyDNA probes can identify genetic material because of:
Correct
Explanation: A
The base-pairing principle ensures that probes only bind to sequences complementary to their own.Incorrect
Explanation: A
The base-pairing principle ensures that probes only bind to sequences complementary to their own. -
Question 78 of 180
78. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich of the following factor does not alter the rate of breathing by influencing the chemoreceptors in medulla oblongata, aorta and carotid artery?
A. CO2 partial pressures in the blood
B. H+ concentration in. the blood
C. O2 partial pressures in the blood
D. Blood glucose levelCorrect
Explanation: D
•The rate of breathing is primarily regulated by the respiratory centers in the medulla oblongata and pons, which respond to chemical signals from the chemoreceptors in the aorta and carotid arteries. These chemoreceptors are sensitive to changes in the levels of carbon dioxide (CO2) partial pressure, hydrogen ion (H+) concentration (pH), and oxygen (O2) partial pressure in the blood.
•Blood glucose level, on the other hand, does not directly influence the rate of breathing through the chemoreceptors in the medulla oblongata, aorta, and carotid artery. Instead, blood glucose levels are primarily regulated by hormones such as insulin and glucagon, and they play a crucial role in maintaining glucose homeostasis in the body. However, glucose levels can indirectly affect breathing in cases of severe hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia, which may lead to altered levels of consciousness or metabolic imbalances that can impact respiratory function. But it is not a direct regulator of the rate of breathing through the chemoreceptors mentioned.Incorrect
Explanation: D
•The rate of breathing is primarily regulated by the respiratory centers in the medulla oblongata and pons, which respond to chemical signals from the chemoreceptors in the aorta and carotid arteries. These chemoreceptors are sensitive to changes in the levels of carbon dioxide (CO2) partial pressure, hydrogen ion (H+) concentration (pH), and oxygen (O2) partial pressure in the blood.
•Blood glucose level, on the other hand, does not directly influence the rate of breathing through the chemoreceptors in the medulla oblongata, aorta, and carotid artery. Instead, blood glucose levels are primarily regulated by hormones such as insulin and glucagon, and they play a crucial role in maintaining glucose homeostasis in the body. However, glucose levels can indirectly affect breathing in cases of severe hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia, which may lead to altered levels of consciousness or metabolic imbalances that can impact respiratory function. But it is not a direct regulator of the rate of breathing through the chemoreceptors mentioned. -
Question 79 of 180
79. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich of the following joints would allow no movements?
Correct
Explanation: C
Fibrous joints are also called fixed or immovable joints because they do not allow any movement. These joints are immovable as they have no joint cavity or space present between the bones. They are connected via fibrous connective tissue. There are three types of fibrous joints: sutures, syndesmoses, and gomphoses. Sutures are found only in the skull, an example of a syndesmosis is the joint of the tibia and fibula in the ankle, Gomphoses occur between teeth and their sockets.
So, the correct answer is ‘Fibrous joint’
A. Synovial joints are freely moveable joints.
B. Ball and socket joint are example of freely moveable joints.
D. These joints allow little movement like pubic symphysis, intervertebral disc and coastal cartilage.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Fibrous joints are also called fixed or immovable joints because they do not allow any movement. These joints are immovable as they have no joint cavity or space present between the bones. They are connected via fibrous connective tissue. There are three types of fibrous joints: sutures, syndesmoses, and gomphoses. Sutures are found only in the skull, an example of a syndesmosis is the joint of the tibia and fibula in the ankle, Gomphoses occur between teeth and their sockets.
So, the correct answer is ‘Fibrous joint’
A. Synovial joints are freely moveable joints.
B. Ball and socket joint are example of freely moveable joints.
D. These joints allow little movement like pubic symphysis, intervertebral disc and coastal cartilage. -
Question 80 of 180
80. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich statement is incorrect about chemical synapse?
Correct
Explanation: B
Consecutive neurons are so arranged that the axon endings of one neuron are connected to the dendrites of the next neuron. There is no cytoplasmic connection between the two neurons and microscopic gaps are left between them.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Consecutive neurons are so arranged that the axon endings of one neuron are connected to the dendrites of the next neuron. There is no cytoplasmic connection between the two neurons and microscopic gaps are left between them. -
Question 81 of 180
81. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyIn the male reproductive tract, sperm cells follow a specific path. Which of the following do sperm cells enter after traveling through the epididymis?
Correct
Explanation: D
The correct sequence for transport of sperm cells in male reproductive system is Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Vas deferens → Ejaculatory duct → Urethra → Urethral meatus.Incorrect
Explanation: D
The correct sequence for transport of sperm cells in male reproductive system is Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Vas deferens → Ejaculatory duct → Urethra → Urethral meatus. -
Question 82 of 180
82. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhen heterozygous mono hybrids are crossed, the genotype ratio of the offspring is:
Correct
Explanation: C
According to the law of segregation, when two pure breeds are crossed (e.g. RR and rr), all of the F1 generation has the dominant trait and their genotype is Rr. They are called Hybrids. When hybrids are crossed, resulting F2 generation has the phenotypic ratio of 3:1 and their genotypic ratio is 1:2:1. So, the correct Option is C.
Incorrect
Explanation: C
According to the law of segregation, when two pure breeds are crossed (e.g. RR and rr), all of the F1 generation has the dominant trait and their genotype is Rr. They are called Hybrids. When hybrids are crossed, resulting F2 generation has the phenotypic ratio of 3:1 and their genotypic ratio is 1:2:1. So, the correct Option is C.

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Question 83 of 180
83. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyMain points of Darwin’s theory of evolution are:
Correct
Explanation: D
The main points of Darwin’s theory of evolution are “Descent with Modification,” “Natural Selection,” “Adaptation”. These concepts collectively form the foundation of his theory and provide an explanation for how species evolve and adapt to their environments over time.Incorrect
Explanation: D
The main points of Darwin’s theory of evolution are “Descent with Modification,” “Natural Selection,” “Adaptation”. These concepts collectively form the foundation of his theory and provide an explanation for how species evolve and adapt to their environments over time. -
Question 84 of 180
84. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe reason DNA or RNA probes can identify viruses like HIV is because:
Correct
Explanation: B
Probes carry fluorescent or radioactive tags and bind specifically to complementary viral genetic material.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Probes carry fluorescent or radioactive tags and bind specifically to complementary viral genetic material. -
Question 85 of 180
85. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyReflex actions are:
Correct
Explanation: B
Reflex actions bypass the brain and occur through the spinal cord for a fast response.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Reflex actions bypass the brain and occur through the spinal cord for a fast response. -
Question 86 of 180
86. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyDuring inspiration the space inside the chest cavity is increased due to:
Correct
Explanation: D
During inspiration muscles of ribs and diaphragm contract due to which ribs are elevated and diaphragm become less dome shaped. The space in chest cavity is increased.Incorrect
Explanation: D
During inspiration muscles of ribs and diaphragm contract due to which ribs are elevated and diaphragm become less dome shaped. The space in chest cavity is increased. -
Question 87 of 180
87. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyStimulation of a muscle fiber by a motor neuron occurs at:
Correct
Explanation: A
A neuron that transmits a stimulus to muscle tissue is called motor neuron. A motor unit consists of a single motor neuron (nerve cell) and the muscle fibers it innervates. The portion of the muscle plasma membrane (sarcolemma) that lies beneath the nerve endings (axon terminals) is called the motor end plate. The axon terminals and the motor end plate together constitute the neuromuscular junction or neuromotor junction.
B. Sarcolemma of muscle fiber penetrates deep into the cell to form a hollow elongated tube called transverse tubule.
C. Muscle fibers of skeletal muscles are composed of myofibrils which are further of two types thick and thin myofibrils.
D. Endoplasmic reticulum of muscles is called sarcoplasmic reticulum.Incorrect
Explanation: A
A neuron that transmits a stimulus to muscle tissue is called motor neuron. A motor unit consists of a single motor neuron (nerve cell) and the muscle fibers it innervates. The portion of the muscle plasma membrane (sarcolemma) that lies beneath the nerve endings (axon terminals) is called the motor end plate. The axon terminals and the motor end plate together constitute the neuromuscular junction or neuromotor junction.
B. Sarcolemma of muscle fiber penetrates deep into the cell to form a hollow elongated tube called transverse tubule.
C. Muscle fibers of skeletal muscles are composed of myofibrils which are further of two types thick and thin myofibrils.
D. Endoplasmic reticulum of muscles is called sarcoplasmic reticulum. -
Question 88 of 180
88. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyCalcium channels open in___________ during nerve impulse conduction.
Correct
Explanation: B
Calcium channels reside in the surface membrane of the presynaptic nerve terminal. Inside the terminal, Ca2+ ions rapidly bind to endogenous intracellular buffers and could trigger Ca2+ release from internal Ca2+ stores. Inside the terminal, Ca2+ ions rapidly bind to endogenous intracellular buffers and could trigger Ca2+ release from internal Ca2+ storesIncorrect
Explanation: B
Calcium channels reside in the surface membrane of the presynaptic nerve terminal. Inside the terminal, Ca2+ ions rapidly bind to endogenous intracellular buffers and could trigger Ca2+ release from internal Ca2+ stores. Inside the terminal, Ca2+ ions rapidly bind to endogenous intracellular buffers and could trigger Ca2+ release from internal Ca2+ stores -
Question 89 of 180
89. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyProliferative phase occurs in:
Correct
Explanation: A
Following menstruation, the proliferative phase begins. It usually lasts from around day 6 to day 14 of a 28-day cycle, but the exact timing can vary. During this phase: Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) stimulates the development of ovarian follicles, each containing an immature egg (oocyte). Rising levels of estrogen, produced by the developing follicles, stimulate the growth and proliferation of the endometrial lining in the uterus.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Following menstruation, the proliferative phase begins. It usually lasts from around day 6 to day 14 of a 28-day cycle, but the exact timing can vary. During this phase: Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) stimulates the development of ovarian follicles, each containing an immature egg (oocyte). Rising levels of estrogen, produced by the developing follicles, stimulate the growth and proliferation of the endometrial lining in the uterus. -
Question 90 of 180
90. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyA diseased man marries a normal woman. They have five daughters and three sons. All the daughters were diseased and the sons were normal. The gene of this disease is:
Correct
Explanation: A
The father transmits his “X-chromosome” to the daughter while the sons receive “Y-chromosome” from the father. Since only the daughter and none of the sons are affected, the trait is X-linked. Daughters get the second copy of X-chromosomes from the mother who is normal and hence does not carry the affected allele of the trait. The trait is expressed in daughters under heterozygous conditions, hence it is an X-linked dominant trait. The correct option is A.Incorrect
Explanation: A
The father transmits his “X-chromosome” to the daughter while the sons receive “Y-chromosome” from the father. Since only the daughter and none of the sons are affected, the trait is X-linked. Daughters get the second copy of X-chromosomes from the mother who is normal and hence does not carry the affected allele of the trait. The trait is expressed in daughters under heterozygous conditions, hence it is an X-linked dominant trait. The correct option is A. -
Question 91 of 180
91. Question
1 pointsCategory: Biology_______________ was the first person who argued for evolution with evidence:
Correct
Explanation: B
Charles Darwin is widely recognized as the person who argued for evolution with strong evidence and is most famous for his theory of evolution by natural selection. Darwin’s work, particularly his book “On the Origin of Species,” is a foundational contribution to the field of evolutionary biology. He provided substantial evidence for the idea of species evolving over time through the mechanism of natural selection.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Charles Darwin is widely recognized as the person who argued for evolution with strong evidence and is most famous for his theory of evolution by natural selection. Darwin’s work, particularly his book “On the Origin of Species,” is a foundational contribution to the field of evolutionary biology. He provided substantial evidence for the idea of species evolving over time through the mechanism of natural selection. -
Question 92 of 180
92. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyStruvite or infection stones usually result from:
Correct
Explanation: B
Struvite stones (15–20% of cases) form due to infections by urease-producing bacteria such as Proteus, Klebsiella, etc.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Struvite stones (15–20% of cases) form due to infections by urease-producing bacteria such as Proteus, Klebsiella, etc. -
Question 93 of 180
93. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich clotting factor is affected in Haemophilia B?
Correct
Explanation: B
Haemophilia B is a genetic disorder where the body lacks or has low levels of blood clotting factor IX, which is essential for normal blood clotting. This leads to prolonged bleeding.
Key point:
• Haemophilia A → Factor VIII
• Haemophilia B → Factor IX
• Haemophilia C → Factor XI
So, the correct answer is B.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Haemophilia B is a genetic disorder where the body lacks or has low levels of blood clotting factor IX, which is essential for normal blood clotting. This leads to prolonged bleeding.
Key point:
• Haemophilia A → Factor VIII
• Haemophilia B → Factor IX
• Haemophilia C → Factor XI
So, the correct answer is B. -
Question 94 of 180
94. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe epiglottis a flap of tissues covers the:
Correct
Explanation: B
The larynx is a cartilaginous segment of the respiratory tract located in the anterior aspect of the neck. The primary function of the larynx in humans and other vertebrates is to protect the lower respiratory tract from aspirating food into the trachea while breathing.Incorrect
Explanation: B
The larynx is a cartilaginous segment of the respiratory tract located in the anterior aspect of the neck. The primary function of the larynx in humans and other vertebrates is to protect the lower respiratory tract from aspirating food into the trachea while breathing. -
Question 95 of 180
95. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich cartilage is present at the end of long bones?
Correct
Explanation: B
Cartilage is an important component of skeleton. It consists of a firm matrix containing collagen and elastin fibres and cells in fluidfilled lacunae. Cartilage has many types.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Cartilage is an important component of skeleton. It consists of a firm matrix containing collagen and elastin fibres and cells in fluidfilled lacunae. Cartilage has many types. -
Question 96 of 180
96. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhat is a stimulus capable of producing an action potential called?
Correct
Explanation: B
“A nerve or muscle fiber remains at resting potential until stimulated.
A sub-threshold stimulus is too weak to produce an action potential.
A threshold stimulus is the minimum strength required to depolarize the membrane to its critical level, thereby generating an action potential.
Stronger stimuli beyond the threshold do not increase the size of the action potential (all-or-none law).
Hence, a stimulus capable of producing an action potential is called a threshold stimulus.”Incorrect
Explanation: B
“A nerve or muscle fiber remains at resting potential until stimulated.
A sub-threshold stimulus is too weak to produce an action potential.
A threshold stimulus is the minimum strength required to depolarize the membrane to its critical level, thereby generating an action potential.
Stronger stimuli beyond the threshold do not increase the size of the action potential (all-or-none law).
Hence, a stimulus capable of producing an action potential is called a threshold stimulus.” -
Question 97 of 180
97. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyBetween the seminiferous tubules are interstitial cells which secrete which of the following hormone?
Correct
Explanation: C
Between the seminiferous tubules in the testes are interstitial cells, also known as Leydig cells. Leydig cells are responsible for secreting the male sex hormone testosterone. Testosterone plays a crucial role in the development and maintenance of male reproductive tissues and the expression of male secondary sexual characteristics. It influences the development of the testes, promotes the production of sperm in the seminiferous tubules, and is involved in the development of male secondary sexual characteristics such as facial hair, deepening of the voice, and increased muscle mass.
Incorrect
Explanation: C
Between the seminiferous tubules in the testes are interstitial cells, also known as Leydig cells. Leydig cells are responsible for secreting the male sex hormone testosterone. Testosterone plays a crucial role in the development and maintenance of male reproductive tissues and the expression of male secondary sexual characteristics. It influences the development of the testes, promotes the production of sperm in the seminiferous tubules, and is involved in the development of male secondary sexual characteristics such as facial hair, deepening of the voice, and increased muscle mass.

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Question 98 of 180
98. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich of the following is an example of an X-linked recessive trait in humans?
Correct
Explanation: B
The gene responsible for color blindness is located on the X chromosome. In other words, red-green color blindness is an X-linked recessive condition. If a female inherits one normal color vision gene and one mutated gene, she won’t be red-green color blind, because it’s a recessive trait.Incorrect
Explanation: B
The gene responsible for color blindness is located on the X chromosome. In other words, red-green color blindness is an X-linked recessive condition. If a female inherits one normal color vision gene and one mutated gene, she won’t be red-green color blind, because it’s a recessive trait. -
Question 99 of 180
99. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe idea of inheritance of acquired characteristics was given by:
Correct
Explanation: A
Lamarck believed that organisms can change over time through the inheritance of acquired characteristics. Theories proposed by other scientists are mentioned under their name.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Lamarck believed that organisms can change over time through the inheritance of acquired characteristics. Theories proposed by other scientists are mentioned under their name. -
Question 100 of 180
100. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyHyperuricemia refers to:
Correct
Explanation: C
Hyperuricemia is characterized by high uric acid in blood, predisposing to uric acid stones.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Hyperuricemia is characterized by high uric acid in blood, predisposing to uric acid stones. -
Question 101 of 180
101. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhat is gene linkage?
Correct
Explanation: C
Gene linkage refers to the tendency of genes located on the same chromosome to be inherited together during genetic crosses.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Gene linkage refers to the tendency of genes located on the same chromosome to be inherited together during genetic crosses. -
Question 102 of 180
102. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyIn humans, homeostatic thermostat is present in which of the following parts of the brain?
Correct
Explanation: B
Hypothalamus is the brain part which has homeostatic thermostat.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Hypothalamus is the brain part which has homeostatic thermostat. -
Question 103 of 180
103. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich one of the following muscles are considered as “Voluntary muscles”?
Correct
Explanation: B
Cardiac and smooth muscles are involuntary in action, while skeletal muscles are voluntary in their functions.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Cardiac and smooth muscles are involuntary in action, while skeletal muscles are voluntary in their functions. -
Question 104 of 180
104. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhat is the main function of the myelin sheath?
Correct
Explanation: B
Myelin insulates axons and enables saltatory conduction between nodes of Ranvier, making nerve impulses travel faster and more efficiently. It doesn’t store nutrients, help cells divide, or synthesize neurotransmitters.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Myelin insulates axons and enables saltatory conduction between nodes of Ranvier, making nerve impulses travel faster and more efficiently. It doesn’t store nutrients, help cells divide, or synthesize neurotransmitters. -
Question 105 of 180
105. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyMendel’s laws are explained by:
Correct
Explanation: C
Correct option: C Mendel’s laws, which describe patterns of inheritance, can be explained by the behavior of chromosomes during meiosis. Meiosis is the cell division process that produces gametes (sex cells), and it involves the recombination and segregation of chromosomes. The segregation of alleles during meiosis corresponds to Mendel’s Law of Segregation, while the independent assortment of chromosomes corresponds to Mendel’s Law of Independent Assortment. Therefore, option C, chromosomes behavior in meiosis, provides an explanation for Mendel’s laws.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Correct option: C Mendel’s laws, which describe patterns of inheritance, can be explained by the behavior of chromosomes during meiosis. Meiosis is the cell division process that produces gametes (sex cells), and it involves the recombination and segregation of chromosomes. The segregation of alleles during meiosis corresponds to Mendel’s Law of Segregation, while the independent assortment of chromosomes corresponds to Mendel’s Law of Independent Assortment. Therefore, option C, chromosomes behavior in meiosis, provides an explanation for Mendel’s laws. -
Question 106 of 180
106. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWho used the term “survival of the fittest”?
Correct
Explanation: C
Herbert Spencer was the first person to use the term “survival of the fittest”. He did so in his 1864 book Principles of Biology. Spencer was a philosopher and sociologist who was influenced by Darwin’s work on evolution. He used the term “survival of the fittest” to describe the process by which organisms that are better adapted to their environment are more likely to survive and reproduce.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Herbert Spencer was the first person to use the term “survival of the fittest”. He did so in his 1864 book Principles of Biology. Spencer was a philosopher and sociologist who was influenced by Darwin’s work on evolution. He used the term “survival of the fittest” to describe the process by which organisms that are better adapted to their environment are more likely to survive and reproduce. -
Question 107 of 180
107. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyHyperparathyroidism may lead to kidney stones due to:
Correct
Explanation: B
Overactive parathyroid glands increase blood calcium (hypercalcemia), leading to calcium oxalate or phosphate stone formation.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Overactive parathyroid glands increase blood calcium (hypercalcemia), leading to calcium oxalate or phosphate stone formation. -
Question 108 of 180
108. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyIf only parental types are produced in test cross, it indicates:
Correct
Explanation: C
Only parental types (no recombinants) indicate complete or tight linkage, meaning the genes are very close on the chromosome and do not cross over.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Only parental types (no recombinants) indicate complete or tight linkage, meaning the genes are very close on the chromosome and do not cross over. -
Question 109 of 180
109. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhat is least selective process during urine formation:
Correct
Explanation: B
Self explanatory.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Self explanatory. -
Question 110 of 180
110. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhen a muscle is at rest, what blocks myosin from heading to actin?
Correct
Explanation: A
When a muscle is at rest, tropomyosin is a regulatory protein that covers the myosin-binding sites on the actin filament. This covering prevents the myosin heads from attaching to actin, effectively inhibiting muscle contraction. Tropomyosin’s position is controlled by the troponin complex in response to calcium levels.Incorrect
Explanation: A
When a muscle is at rest, tropomyosin is a regulatory protein that covers the myosin-binding sites on the actin filament. This covering prevents the myosin heads from attaching to actin, effectively inhibiting muscle contraction. Tropomyosin’s position is controlled by the troponin complex in response to calcium levels. -
Question 111 of 180
111. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyAcrosome of sperm is produced by the?
Correct
Explanation: A
⇒ The head of the sperm contain lysosome like acrosome is produced by Golgi apparatus. It contain hydrolytic enzyme Hyaluronidase.Incorrect
Explanation: A
⇒ The head of the sperm contain lysosome like acrosome is produced by Golgi apparatus. It contain hydrolytic enzyme Hyaluronidase. -
Question 112 of 180
112. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyBreakdown of endometrium during menstruation is due to:
Correct
Explanation: B
The breakdown of the endometrium during menstruation is due to a decrease in the levels of the hormone progesterone. This hormone is responsible for maintaining the lining of the uterus, and when its levels decrease, the lining begins to break down. So, option B is correct.
Incorrect
Explanation: B
The breakdown of the endometrium during menstruation is due to a decrease in the levels of the hormone progesterone. This hormone is responsible for maintaining the lining of the uterus, and when its levels decrease, the lining begins to break down. So, option B is correct.

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Question 113 of 180
113. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyLuteinizing hormone triggers:
Correct
Explanation: C
Luteinizing hormone (LH) is a hormone produced by the anterior pituitary gland. It plays a crucial role in the female reproductive system by triggering ovulation. Ovulation is the process in which a mature follicle in the ovary releases an egg (oocyte) into the fallopian tube, where it can potentially be fertilized by sperm. Hence, option C is correct.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Luteinizing hormone (LH) is a hormone produced by the anterior pituitary gland. It plays a crucial role in the female reproductive system by triggering ovulation. Ovulation is the process in which a mature follicle in the ovary releases an egg (oocyte) into the fallopian tube, where it can potentially be fertilized by sperm. Hence, option C is correct. -
Question 114 of 180
114. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhich of the following characters of pea plant is dominant?
Correct
Explanation: D
In a homozygous pea plant, axial flowers (A) are dominant over terminal flowers (a)Incorrect
Explanation: D
In a homozygous pea plant, axial flowers (A) are dominant over terminal flowers (a) -
Question 115 of 180
115. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyThe concept of uniformitarianism was formulated by:
Correct
Explanation: D
Chris Lyell was a great geologist of his time. His theory of uniformitarianism inspired Darwin. According to Lyell, the geologic processes that were around at the beginning of time were the same ones that were happening in the present as well and they worked the same way. He believed the Earth developed through a series of slow changes that built up over time.Incorrect
Explanation: D
Chris Lyell was a great geologist of his time. His theory of uniformitarianism inspired Darwin. According to Lyell, the geologic processes that were around at the beginning of time were the same ones that were happening in the present as well and they worked the same way. He believed the Earth developed through a series of slow changes that built up over time. -
Question 116 of 180
116. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyIn case of overheating, the body temperature is regulated by:
Correct
Explanation: B
When the body overheats, it tries to cool down by increasing sweat production (more sweating), which helps release heat through evaporation. At the same time, the body reduces urine output (less urination) to conserve water, as more is being lost through sweat. This is part of thermoregulation in humans.Incorrect
Explanation: B
When the body overheats, it tries to cool down by increasing sweat production (more sweating), which helps release heat through evaporation. At the same time, the body reduces urine output (less urination) to conserve water, as more is being lost through sweat. This is part of thermoregulation in humans. -
Question 117 of 180
117. Question
1 pointsCategory: BiologyWhy are monoclonal antibodies considered highly reliable in medical testing?
Correct
Explanation: B
Their specificity makes monoclonal antibodies valuable in detecting and targeting unique antigens such as those in pathogens or cancer cells.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Their specificity makes monoclonal antibodies valuable in detecting and targeting unique antigens such as those in pathogens or cancer cells. -
Question 118 of 180
118. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryNucleophile among the given species is:
A. BF3
B. AlCl3
C. NH3
D. CH3+Correct
Explanation: C
NH3 is a group 5 compound with a donatable lone pair of electrons.Incorrect
Explanation: C
NH3 is a group 5 compound with a donatable lone pair of electrons. -
Question 119 of 180
119. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryAlpha carbon is sp3 hybridized in:
Correct
Explanation: D
The α-carbon is the carbon atom directly attached to the halogen atom in alkyl halides.
In primary, secondary, and tertiary alkyl halides, this α-carbon is always bonded to four atoms (halogen + hydrogens or carbons).
Since it forms four σ-bonds, its hybridization is sp3.
Primary alkyl halide → α-carbon bonded to 1 carbon + 2 hydrogens + 1 halogen → sp3
Secondary alkyl halide → α-carbon bonded to 2 carbons + 1 hydrogen + 1 halogen → sp3
Tertiary alkyl halide → α-carbon bonded to 3 carbons + 1 halogen → sp3
Therefore, in all types of alkyl halides, the α-carbon is sp3 hybridized.Incorrect
Explanation: D
The α-carbon is the carbon atom directly attached to the halogen atom in alkyl halides.
In primary, secondary, and tertiary alkyl halides, this α-carbon is always bonded to four atoms (halogen + hydrogens or carbons).
Since it forms four σ-bonds, its hybridization is sp3.
Primary alkyl halide → α-carbon bonded to 1 carbon + 2 hydrogens + 1 halogen → sp3
Secondary alkyl halide → α-carbon bonded to 2 carbons + 1 hydrogen + 1 halogen → sp3
Tertiary alkyl halide → α-carbon bonded to 3 carbons + 1 halogen → sp3
Therefore, in all types of alkyl halides, the α-carbon is sp3 hybridized. -
Question 120 of 180
120. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryCompound that does not contain a carbonyl group:
Correct
Explanation: D
Nitrile (–C≡N): Contains a cyano group, which has a carbon–nitrogen triple bond, but no carbonyl (C=O) group.Incorrect
Explanation: D
Nitrile (–C≡N): Contains a cyano group, which has a carbon–nitrogen triple bond, but no carbonyl (C=O) group. -
Question 121 of 180
121. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryWhich protein is correctly matched with its metal ion and function?
Correct
Explanation B
Correct Match: Hemoglobin is an iron-containing protein found in red blood cells. Its primary function is to transport oxygen from the lungs to the rest of the body’s tissues. It also carries some carbon dioxide from the tissues back to the lungs.Incorrect
Explanation B
Correct Match: Hemoglobin is an iron-containing protein found in red blood cells. Its primary function is to transport oxygen from the lungs to the rest of the body’s tissues. It also carries some carbon dioxide from the tissues back to the lungs. -
Question 122 of 180
122. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryWhich of the following compounds exhibits cis trans isomerism?
Correct
Explanation: C
1,2-Dichloroethene has a C=C double bond where each carbon atom is bonded to one hydrogen atom and one chlorine atom. This satisfies the conditions for cis-trans isomerism.Incorrect
Explanation: C
1,2-Dichloroethene has a C=C double bond where each carbon atom is bonded to one hydrogen atom and one chlorine atom. This satisfies the conditions for cis-trans isomerism. -
Question 123 of 180
123. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryEthanol gives a cloudy solution with Lucas reagent:
Correct
Explanation: C
Ethanol is a primary alcohol that gives positive Lucas’s test on heating
3° alcohol → Immediate cloudiness
2° alcohol → 5–10 min
1° alcohol (like ethanol) → Only on heating.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Ethanol is a primary alcohol that gives positive Lucas’s test on heating
3° alcohol → Immediate cloudiness
2° alcohol → 5–10 min
1° alcohol (like ethanol) → Only on heating. -
Question 124 of 180
124. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryWhich of the following best differentiates pigments from dyes?
Correct
Explanation: B
Pigments are insoluble and remain as particles, while dyes dissolve and bind chemically.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Pigments are insoluble and remain as particles, while dyes dissolve and bind chemically. -
Question 125 of 180
125. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryA base catalyst catalyzes a nucleophilic addition reaction by:
Correct
Explanation: A
Base catalyst in nucleophilic addition reactions of aldehydes & ketones catalyzes the reaction by removing electrophilic portion of reagent & generating a strong nucleophile.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Base catalyst in nucleophilic addition reactions of aldehydes & ketones catalyzes the reaction by removing electrophilic portion of reagent & generating a strong nucleophile. -
Question 126 of 180
126. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryWhich compound contains both alkoxide & carbonyl groups?
Correct
Explanation: D
An ester has the general formula R-CO-OR’. It is formed from a carboxylic acid and an alcohol.
The carbonyl group is the C=O part.
The alkoxide group is the -OR’ part, an oxygen atom bonded to another carbon chain.Incorrect
Explanation: D
An ester has the general formula R-CO-OR’. It is formed from a carboxylic acid and an alcohol.
The carbonyl group is the C=O part.
The alkoxide group is the -OR’ part, an oxygen atom bonded to another carbon chain. -
Question 127 of 180
127. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryMost reactive alkyl halide in an SN1 reaction:
Correct
Explanation: B
An SN1 (Substitution, Nucleophilic, Unimolecular) reaction proceeds in two steps, with the first and rate-determining step being the formation of a carbocation intermediate. The rate of an SN1 reaction is dependent on the stability of this carbocation. The more stable the carbocation, the faster it forms, and the more reactive the alkyl halide. The stability of carbocations follows this trend:
Tertiary > Secondary > Primary
In 2-Chloro-2-Methyl butane: The chlorine atom is attached to a tertiary carbon. It will form a tertiary carbocation.Incorrect
Explanation: B
An SN1 (Substitution, Nucleophilic, Unimolecular) reaction proceeds in two steps, with the first and rate-determining step being the formation of a carbocation intermediate. The rate of an SN1 reaction is dependent on the stability of this carbocation. The more stable the carbocation, the faster it forms, and the more reactive the alkyl halide. The stability of carbocations follows this trend:
Tertiary > Secondary > Primary
In 2-Chloro-2-Methyl butane: The chlorine atom is attached to a tertiary carbon. It will form a tertiary carbocation. -
Question 128 of 180
128. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryButanoic acid undergoes a chemical process involving the use of Soda lime. The product obtained is:
Correct
Explanation: D
Decarboxylation of carboxylic acids occur in the presence of soda lime to give an alkane with one carbon less than the carbons in carboxylic acid used.Incorrect
Explanation: D
Decarboxylation of carboxylic acids occur in the presence of soda lime to give an alkane with one carbon less than the carbons in carboxylic acid used. -
Question 129 of 180
129. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryOn oxidation superoxide is formed by;
Correct
Explanation: B
K gives superoxide on oxidation with oxygen. In group 1 K & below give super oxides, in group 2 Sr & Ba give peroxides.Incorrect
Explanation: B
K gives superoxide on oxidation with oxygen. In group 1 K & below give super oxides, in group 2 Sr & Ba give peroxides. -
Question 130 of 180
130. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryIf 2-Methyl butane is taken in excess & reacted with halogen, the major product would be:
Correct
Explanation: A
Identify the type of hydrogens: First, let’s identify the different types of hydrogen atoms in 2-methylbutane. The structure is:(CH3-CH(CH3)-CH2-CH3)
There are six equivalent primary hydrogens on the two terminal (CH3) groups.
There is one tertiary hydrogen on the second carbon atom.
There are two secondary hydrogens on the third carbon atom.
The order of reactivity for a free-radical halogenation reaction is: tertiary > secondary > primary. This is because the more substituted the radical, the more stable it is due to hyperconjugation. Since the tertiary hydrogen is the most reactive, it is the most likely to be substituted by the halogen. The halogen will therefore add to the second carbon, replacing the tertiary hydrogen to give 2-Halo-2-Methyl butane.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Identify the type of hydrogens: First, let’s identify the different types of hydrogen atoms in 2-methylbutane. The structure is:(CH3-CH(CH3)-CH2-CH3)
There are six equivalent primary hydrogens on the two terminal (CH3) groups.
There is one tertiary hydrogen on the second carbon atom.
There are two secondary hydrogens on the third carbon atom.
The order of reactivity for a free-radical halogenation reaction is: tertiary > secondary > primary. This is because the more substituted the radical, the more stable it is due to hyperconjugation. Since the tertiary hydrogen is the most reactive, it is the most likely to be substituted by the halogen. The halogen will therefore add to the second carbon, replacing the tertiary hydrogen to give 2-Halo-2-Methyl butane. -
Question 131 of 180
131. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryExcess Bromine gives a white ppt with:
Correct
Explanation: A
Excess Br2 gives a white ppt of Tribromophenol upon reaction with phenol.
C6H5OH + 3Br2 → 2, 4, 6, – C6H2Br3OH (whiteppt) + 3HBr,Incorrect
Explanation: A
Excess Br2 gives a white ppt of Tribromophenol upon reaction with phenol.
C6H5OH + 3Br2 → 2, 4, 6, – C6H2Br3OH (whiteppt) + 3HBr, -
Question 132 of 180
132. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryEthyl propionate is reduced using LiAlH4 to give:
Correct
Explanation: B
Esters are reduced using LiAlH4 to give corresponding alcohols.
Ethyl propionate (CH3CH2COOCH2CH3):
This is an ester (propanoic acid ethyl ester).
Reduction with LiAlH4:
LiAlH4 is a powerful reducing agent.
It reduces esters to two alcohols:
One alcohol comes from the acid part (–COOR → R–CH2OH).
The other alcohol comes from the alkyl part (–OR → R′–OH).
Breaking it down:
Acid part = propanoate → reduced to propan-1-ol (CH3CH2CH2OH).
Alkoxy part = ethyl (–OCH2CH3) → reduced to ethanol (CH3CH2OH).
Products: Ethanol, Propanol.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Esters are reduced using LiAlH4 to give corresponding alcohols.
Ethyl propionate (CH3CH2COOCH2CH3):
This is an ester (propanoic acid ethyl ester).
Reduction with LiAlH4:
LiAlH4 is a powerful reducing agent.
It reduces esters to two alcohols:
One alcohol comes from the acid part (–COOR → R–CH2OH).
The other alcohol comes from the alkyl part (–OR → R′–OH).
Breaking it down:
Acid part = propanoate → reduced to propan-1-ol (CH3CH2CH2OH).
Alkoxy part = ethyl (–OCH2CH3) → reduced to ethanol (CH3CH2OH).
Products: Ethanol, Propanol. -
Question 133 of 180
133. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryWhich is an appropriate reagent to distinguish between an aldehyde & a ketone:
Correct
Explanation: C
Benedict’s test (or Fehling’s test / Tollen’s test):
Aldehydes are easily oxidized to carboxylic acids → give positive result (red Cu2O ppt in Benedict’s / Fehling’s; silver mirror in Tollen’s).
Ketones (except α-hydroxy ketones) do not react.
This is the most reliable reagent to distinguish aldehyde vs ketone.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Benedict’s test (or Fehling’s test / Tollen’s test):
Aldehydes are easily oxidized to carboxylic acids → give positive result (red Cu2O ppt in Benedict’s / Fehling’s; silver mirror in Tollen’s).
Ketones (except α-hydroxy ketones) do not react.
This is the most reliable reagent to distinguish aldehyde vs ketone. -
Question 134 of 180
134. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryProduction of alkene is easiest by using which reagent:
Correct
Explanation: D
Tertiary alcohols undergo dehydration most easily to give alkenes.Incorrect
Explanation: D
Tertiary alcohols undergo dehydration most easily to give alkenes. -
Question 135 of 180
135. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryMost acidic compound among the given:
Correct
Explanation: B
Order of acidity is:
P-nitrophenol > O-nitrophenol > M-nitrophenol > PhenolIncorrect
Explanation: B
Order of acidity is:
P-nitrophenol > O-nitrophenol > M-nitrophenol > Phenol -
Question 136 of 180
136. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryProduct of hydrolysis of nitriles is:
Correct
Explanation: D
Incorrect
Explanation: D

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Question 137 of 180
137. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryWhich element with given electronic configurations has highest ionization energy:
A. 2s2 2p3
B. 2s2 2p4
C. 2s2
D. 3s2 3p3Correct
Explanation: A
Lower periods have higher ionization energy & group 5 has greater ionization energy than group 6 elements.
Nitrogen (1s2 2s2 2p3): Half-filled p-orbitals → extra stable, hence very high IE.
Oxygen (1s2 2s2 2p4): Just after half-filled → less stable, so IE lower than nitrogen.
Beryllium (1s2 2s2): IE is high (since it’s small, 2nd period), but not as high as nitrogen.
Phosphorus (1s2 … 3s2 3p3): Similar to nitrogen (half-filled), but in 3rd period → larger size, so lower IE than nitrogen.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Lower periods have higher ionization energy & group 5 has greater ionization energy than group 6 elements.
Nitrogen (1s2 2s2 2p3): Half-filled p-orbitals → extra stable, hence very high IE.
Oxygen (1s2 2s2 2p4): Just after half-filled → less stable, so IE lower than nitrogen.
Beryllium (1s2 2s2): IE is high (since it’s small, 2nd period), but not as high as nitrogen.
Phosphorus (1s2 … 3s2 3p3): Similar to nitrogen (half-filled), but in 3rd period → larger size, so lower IE than nitrogen. -
Question 138 of 180
138. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryAcylation of benzene to produce aliphatic aromatic ketones is known as?
Correct
Explanation: D
Alkylation and acylation of benzene is called Friedel-Craft’s reaction.
Incorrect
Explanation: D
Alkylation and acylation of benzene is called Friedel-Craft’s reaction.

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Question 139 of 180
139. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryAlcohols are not prepared by:
Correct
Explanation: D
A. Reduction of aldehydes → Alcohols
Aldehydes are reduced to primary alcohols
B. Reduction of carboxylic acids → Alcohols
Carboxylic acids on reduction give primary alcohols (
C. Hydrolysis of alkyl halides → Alcohols
Alkyl halides undergo hydrolysis with aqueous alkali or moist Ag2O to form alcohols
D. Hydrolysis of nitriles → Carboxylic acids (not alcohols)Incorrect
Explanation: D
A. Reduction of aldehydes → Alcohols
Aldehydes are reduced to primary alcohols
B. Reduction of carboxylic acids → Alcohols
Carboxylic acids on reduction give primary alcohols (
C. Hydrolysis of alkyl halides → Alcohols
Alkyl halides undergo hydrolysis with aqueous alkali or moist Ag2O to form alcohols
D. Hydrolysis of nitriles → Carboxylic acids (not alcohols) -
Question 140 of 180
140. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryAcidic pentyne undergoes hydration using H2SO4/HgSO4 to give:
Correct
Explanation: B
All alkynes other than ethyne give ketones on hydration, 1-pentyne would give a 2-pentanoneIncorrect
Explanation: B
All alkynes other than ethyne give ketones on hydration, 1-pentyne would give a 2-pentanone -
Question 141 of 180
141. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryThe aldehyde group (–CHO) in benzaldehyde is best described as:
Correct
Explanation: D
The carbonyl group (C = O) in an aldehyde is strongly electron-withdrawing due to both a strong –I effect and a strong –M (resonance) effect, as it withdraws electron density from the ring.
This strong withdrawal deactivates the ring towards electrophilic attack. The resonance effect pulls electron density specifically from the ortho and para positions, making the meta position relatively electron-rich and the preferred site for attack.Incorrect
Explanation: D
The carbonyl group (C = O) in an aldehyde is strongly electron-withdrawing due to both a strong –I effect and a strong –M (resonance) effect, as it withdraws electron density from the ring.
This strong withdrawal deactivates the ring towards electrophilic attack. The resonance effect pulls electron density specifically from the ortho and para positions, making the meta position relatively electron-rich and the preferred site for attack. -
Question 142 of 180
142. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryBromine water is decolourized by:
Correct
Explanation: D
Bromine water is decolorized by alkenes & alkynes.
Propene is an alkene (contains a double bond) and will decolorize bromine water.
2-Butene is an alkene (contains a double bond) and will decolorize bromine water.
Propyne is an alkyne (contains a triple bond) and will decolorize bromine water.Incorrect
Explanation: D
Bromine water is decolorized by alkenes & alkynes.
Propene is an alkene (contains a double bond) and will decolorize bromine water.
2-Butene is an alkene (contains a double bond) and will decolorize bromine water.
Propyne is an alkyne (contains a triple bond) and will decolorize bromine water. -
Question 143 of 180
143. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryWhat is the nature of the oxygen atom in the hydroxyl group of alcohols?
Correct
Explanation: C
Oxygen in the hydroxyl group has two lone pairs, making it electron-rich and capable of interacting with electrophilesIncorrect
Explanation: C
Oxygen in the hydroxyl group has two lone pairs, making it electron-rich and capable of interacting with electrophiles -
Question 144 of 180
144. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryCompound that is most acidic in nature:
Correct
Explanation: C
Withdrawing groups increase the acidity of carboxylic acids therefore more the number of withdrawing groups, more acidic is the compound.
Trichloroacetic acid (Cl3CCOOH):
Three highly electronegative chlorine atoms strongly stabilize the conjugate base (Cl3CCOO– ).
Trichloroacetic acid > Dichloroacetic acid > Chloroacetic acid > Acetic acidIncorrect
Explanation: C
Withdrawing groups increase the acidity of carboxylic acids therefore more the number of withdrawing groups, more acidic is the compound.
Trichloroacetic acid (Cl3CCOOH):
Three highly electronegative chlorine atoms strongly stabilize the conjugate base (Cl3CCOO– ).
Trichloroacetic acid > Dichloroacetic acid > Chloroacetic acid > Acetic acid -
Question 145 of 180
145. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryWhich oxide can act as both acid & a base:
A. ZnO
B. BeO
C. Al2O3
D. All of theseCorrect
Explanation: D
All the given oxides are amphoteric oxides.Incorrect
Explanation: D
All the given oxides are amphoteric oxides. -
Question 146 of 180
146. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryResonance energy of benzene is:
Correct
Explanation: B
Benzene is stable by an amount of 152 kJ/mol called its resonance energy.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Benzene is stable by an amount of 152 kJ/mol called its resonance energy. -
Question 147 of 180
147. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryWhich one of the following will not undergo dehydrogenation?
A. CH3OH
B. (CH3)2CHOH
C. (CH3)3COH
D. CH3CH2OHCorrect
Explanation: C
Alcohols generally undergo oxidation/dehydrogenation to form aldehydes, ketones, or acids.
Primary alcohols → Aldehydes
Secondary alcohols → Ketones
Tertiary alcohols → Do not undergo dehydrogenation easily (no H on carbon bearing –OH).
(CH3)3COH (tert-butanol, tertiary) → cannot dehydrogenate (no α-hydrogen attached to –OH carbon).Incorrect
Explanation: C
Alcohols generally undergo oxidation/dehydrogenation to form aldehydes, ketones, or acids.
Primary alcohols → Aldehydes
Secondary alcohols → Ketones
Tertiary alcohols → Do not undergo dehydrogenation easily (no H on carbon bearing –OH).
(CH3)3COH (tert-butanol, tertiary) → cannot dehydrogenate (no α-hydrogen attached to –OH carbon). -
Question 148 of 180
148. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryWhat is the IUPAC name for the following branched-chain alkyl halide?
CH3CH(Cl)CH2CH(CH3)CH2CH3Correct
Explanation: D
This question requires applying IUPAC rules for finding the longest chain with multiple substituents and prioritizing numbering based on the lowest set of locants.
Identify the longest carbon chain: The longest continuous chain is a six-carbon chain (hexane), not the five-carbon chain implied by options A and B.
Number the chain: Numbering should start from the end that gives the lowest set of locant numbers for the substituents.
Numbering from left to right: 2-chloro, 4-methyl (locants: 2, 4)Numbering from right to left: 3-methyl, 5-chloro (locants: 3, 5)The lowest set of locants is (2, 4).
Alphabetical order: The substituents are “chloro” and “methyl.” The “c” in chloro comes before the “m” in methyl alphabetically. Assemble the name: The full IUPAC name is 2-chloro-4-methylhexane.Incorrect
Explanation: D
This question requires applying IUPAC rules for finding the longest chain with multiple substituents and prioritizing numbering based on the lowest set of locants.
Identify the longest carbon chain: The longest continuous chain is a six-carbon chain (hexane), not the five-carbon chain implied by options A and B.
Number the chain: Numbering should start from the end that gives the lowest set of locant numbers for the substituents.
Numbering from left to right: 2-chloro, 4-methyl (locants: 2, 4)Numbering from right to left: 3-methyl, 5-chloro (locants: 3, 5)The lowest set of locants is (2, 4).
Alphabetical order: The substituents are “chloro” and “methyl.” The “c” in chloro comes before the “m” in methyl alphabetically. Assemble the name: The full IUPAC name is 2-chloro-4-methylhexane. -
Question 149 of 180
149. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryA compound having a single monosubstituted product:
Correct
Explanation: C
Benzene has a single monosubstituted product due to all Hydrogens being equal. Benzene (C6H6) has a highly symmetrical structure where all six hydrogen atoms are identical and attached to equivalent carbon atoms due to electron delocalization around the ring. Therefore, substituting any one of these hydrogen atoms with another group will always result in the same monosubstituted product.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Benzene has a single monosubstituted product due to all Hydrogens being equal. Benzene (C6H6) has a highly symmetrical structure where all six hydrogen atoms are identical and attached to equivalent carbon atoms due to electron delocalization around the ring. Therefore, substituting any one of these hydrogen atoms with another group will always result in the same monosubstituted product. -
Question 150 of 180
150. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryA substituent on a benzene ring is considered a meta-director if it:
Correct
Explanation: D
This question focuses on the definition and reasoning behind meta-direction.
Incorrect Options:
A. Electron-donating groups via resonance are ortho, para-directors.
B. While inductive withdrawal is involved, most meta-directors also have a stronger resonance withdrawal effect.
C. Meta-directors are deactivating groups.Incorrect
Explanation: D
This question focuses on the definition and reasoning behind meta-direction.
Incorrect Options:
A. Electron-donating groups via resonance are ortho, para-directors.
B. While inductive withdrawal is involved, most meta-directors also have a stronger resonance withdrawal effect.
C. Meta-directors are deactivating groups. -
Question 151 of 180
151. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryFactor which does not play a role in deciding between elimination vs substitution reaction.
Correct
Explanation: D
Nucleophilic vs basic character decides between elimination & substitution.
Nature of substrate
Primary, secondary, tertiary halides strongly influence whether SN1, SN2, E1, or E2 occurs.
Nature of solvent
Polar protic solvents favor SN1/E1.
Polar aprotic solvents favor SN2.
Temperature
Higher temperatures favor elimination (E1/E2) over substitution.
Electrophilic character of reagent
Not relevant here, because in these reactions we deal with nucleophiles and bases (nucleophilicity vs basicity), not electrophiles.Incorrect
Explanation: D
Nucleophilic vs basic character decides between elimination & substitution.
Nature of substrate
Primary, secondary, tertiary halides strongly influence whether SN1, SN2, E1, or E2 occurs.
Nature of solvent
Polar protic solvents favor SN1/E1.
Polar aprotic solvents favor SN2.
Temperature
Higher temperatures favor elimination (E1/E2) over substitution.
Electrophilic character of reagent
Not relevant here, because in these reactions we deal with nucleophiles and bases (nucleophilicity vs basicity), not electrophiles. -
Question 152 of 180
152. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryElectrophile used in alkylation of benzene is:
A. Acylium ion.
B. SO3
C. Alkyl halide.
D. CarbocationCorrect
Explanation: D
Carbocation is the electrophile of alkylation.
The electrophile used in the Friedel-Crafts alkylation of benzene is a carbocation. The reaction is a type of electrophilic aromatic substitution where an alkyl group is added to the benzene ring.Incorrect
Explanation: D
Carbocation is the electrophile of alkylation.
The electrophile used in the Friedel-Crafts alkylation of benzene is a carbocation. The reaction is a type of electrophilic aromatic substitution where an alkyl group is added to the benzene ring. -
Question 153 of 180
153. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryWhat is the correct IUPAC name for the following compound?
CH3 – CH = CH – CH(CH3)2Correct
Explanation D
Identify the parent chain: The longest chain containing the double bond has five carbons. The parent name is “pentene”.
Number the parent chain: Number the chain to give the double bond the lowest number possible. Numbering from left to right gives the double bond at position 2, and numbering from right to left gives it at position 3. The correct numbering is from left to right, placing the double bond between C2 and C3.
Identify and name substituents: A methyl group is attached to carbon 4.
Assemble the name: The substituents are named first, the location of the double bond is placed before the “-ene” suffix. The full name is 4-methylpent-2-ene.Incorrect
Explanation D
Identify the parent chain: The longest chain containing the double bond has five carbons. The parent name is “pentene”.
Number the parent chain: Number the chain to give the double bond the lowest number possible. Numbering from left to right gives the double bond at position 2, and numbering from right to left gives it at position 3. The correct numbering is from left to right, placing the double bond between C2 and C3.
Identify and name substituents: A methyl group is attached to carbon 4.
Assemble the name: The substituents are named first, the location of the double bond is placed before the “-ene” suffix. The full name is 4-methylpent-2-ene. -
Question 154 of 180
154. Question
1 pointsCategory: Chemistry3-Methyl-3-chlorohexane reacts with OH– in the presence of ether as a solvent. The product formed is:
Correct
Explanation: A
Tertiary alkyl halide, a good base & a relatively non-polar solvent all favour elimination over substitution.
Tertiary halides do not undergo SN2 (due to steric hindrance).
If aqueous OH– was used, SN1 could occur → alcohol would form.
But here, the solvent is ether (non-polar, aprotic) → favors elimination (E1) over substitution.
So, the reaction gives an alkene.
Possible product:
On elimination, a β-hydrogen is removed from C–2 or C–4.
The double bond forms at C–3 (where Cl was attached).
The major stable product = 3-Methyl-3-hexene (alkene).Incorrect
Explanation: A
Tertiary alkyl halide, a good base & a relatively non-polar solvent all favour elimination over substitution.
Tertiary halides do not undergo SN2 (due to steric hindrance).
If aqueous OH– was used, SN1 could occur → alcohol would form.
But here, the solvent is ether (non-polar, aprotic) → favors elimination (E1) over substitution.
So, the reaction gives an alkene.
Possible product:
On elimination, a β-hydrogen is removed from C–2 or C–4.
The double bond forms at C–3 (where Cl was attached).
The major stable product = 3-Methyl-3-hexene (alkene). -
Question 155 of 180
155. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryAlCl3 is frequently used as a catalyst in reactions of benzene because:
Correct
Explanation: D
AlCl₃ is frequently used as a catalyst in benzene reactions for several reasons related to its nature as a Lewis acid. It acts as a Lewis acid, It produces an electrophile from the reagent, It is a good electrophile (in itself)Incorrect
Explanation: D
AlCl₃ is frequently used as a catalyst in benzene reactions for several reasons related to its nature as a Lewis acid. It acts as a Lewis acid, It produces an electrophile from the reagent, It is a good electrophile (in itself) -
Question 156 of 180
156. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryMost stable oxidation state for Scandium:
A. 2+
B. 1+
C. 3+
D. 4+Correct
Explanation: C
For starting groups of transition elements +3 is the more stable oxidation state.
Possible oxidation states:
+1: Removing one 4s electron → very unstable.
+2: Removing two 4s electrons → still unstable because one 3d electron remains.
+3: Removing all 3 valence electrons (2 from 4s + 1 from 3d) → gives stable [Ar] configuration.
+4: Not possible under normal conditions (too high ionization energy).
Stability reasoning:
Sc3+ ion has a noble gas configuration (Ar) → very stable.
Therefore, +3 is the most stable and common oxidation state of scandium.Incorrect
Explanation: C
For starting groups of transition elements +3 is the more stable oxidation state.
Possible oxidation states:
+1: Removing one 4s electron → very unstable.
+2: Removing two 4s electrons → still unstable because one 3d electron remains.
+3: Removing all 3 valence electrons (2 from 4s + 1 from 3d) → gives stable [Ar] configuration.
+4: Not possible under normal conditions (too high ionization energy).
Stability reasoning:
Sc3+ ion has a noble gas configuration (Ar) → very stable.
Therefore, +3 is the most stable and common oxidation state of scandium. -
Question 157 of 180
157. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryThe site where substrate binds to enzyme other than active site is called:
Correct
Explanation: B
Textbook Tidbit.
Allosteric site → A site different from the active site, where a molecule (activator or inhibitor) binds to regulate enzyme activity.
Binding here changes the enzyme’s shape (conformation) → affects activity at the active site.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Textbook Tidbit.
Allosteric site → A site different from the active site, where a molecule (activator or inhibitor) binds to regulate enzyme activity.
Binding here changes the enzyme’s shape (conformation) → affects activity at the active site. -
Question 158 of 180
158. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryWhich compound is most difficult to halogenate?
Correct
Explanation: D
Nitrobenzene has the strongest electron withdrawing group making benzene ring electron deprived & difficult to react with.Incorrect
Explanation: D
Nitrobenzene has the strongest electron withdrawing group making benzene ring electron deprived & difficult to react with. -
Question 159 of 180
159. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryCorrect reaction between Si & steam at red heat:
A. Si + O2 → SiO2
B. Si + 4H2O → Si(OH)4 + 2H2
C. Si + 2H2O → SiO2 + 2H2
D. Si + 3H2O → SiO2 + H2O + 2H2Correct
Explanation: C
Incorrect
Explanation: C

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Question 160 of 180
160. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryReaction of alkyl halides that gives an unsaturated product in 2 steps is:
A. SN1
B. SN2
C. E1
D. E2Correct
Explanation: C
Product of elimination reaction is an unsaturated alkene, E1 occurs in two steps usually.
Step 1 (slow step): The leaving group (halide, X–) leaves, forming a carbocation.
Step 2 (fast step): A base removes a β-hydrogen, and a π bond (alkene, unsaturated product) is formed.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Product of elimination reaction is an unsaturated alkene, E1 occurs in two steps usually.
Step 1 (slow step): The leaving group (halide, X–) leaves, forming a carbocation.
Step 2 (fast step): A base removes a β-hydrogen, and a π bond (alkene, unsaturated product) is formed. -
Question 161 of 180
161. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryEmulsion adhesives is a term used for:
Correct
Explanation: B
Polymer dispersion adhesives are also called emulsion adhesives and are milky white dispersions based on polyvinyl acetate.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Polymer dispersion adhesives are also called emulsion adhesives and are milky white dispersions based on polyvinyl acetate. -
Question 162 of 180
162. Question
1 pointsCategory: ChemistryGreatest covalent character is found in:
A. PbCl4
B. PbF4
C. PbCl2
D. PbF2Correct
Explanation: A
Compound having metal atom in higher oxidation state tend to have more covalent character, Cl would form a more covalent compound than Fluorine.
PbCl4 → Pb4+ (high polarizing power) + Cl– (large, polarizable) → most covalent.
PbF4 → Pb4+ + small, less polarizable F– → less covalent.
PbCl2 → Pb2+ (less polarizing than Pb4+) → less covalent than PbCl4.
PbF2 → Pb2+ + F– (small, hard) → most ionic among the list.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Compound having metal atom in higher oxidation state tend to have more covalent character, Cl would form a more covalent compound than Fluorine.
PbCl4 → Pb4+ (high polarizing power) + Cl– (large, polarizable) → most covalent.
PbF4 → Pb4+ + small, less polarizable F– → less covalent.
PbCl2 → Pb2+ (less polarizing than Pb4+) → less covalent than PbCl4.
PbF2 → Pb2+ + F– (small, hard) → most ionic among the list. -
Question 163 of 180
163. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnglishThe pack of wolves ______ running after the wounded prey.
Correct
Explanation: A
All of these options contain helping verbs, so it as in objective of subject-verb agreement.
RULE:
If a subject consists of many words (here: pack, wolves), then look for the main word and select verb according to that. Here the main word is “pack”, which is a collective noun. A collective noun is single entity used to refer to more than one person or animal, therefore a collective noun takes a singular verb (here “is” with “pack”). Therefore, the correct option is A.Incorrect
Explanation: A
All of these options contain helping verbs, so it as in objective of subject-verb agreement.
RULE:
If a subject consists of many words (here: pack, wolves), then look for the main word and select verb according to that. Here the main word is “pack”, which is a collective noun. A collective noun is single entity used to refer to more than one person or animal, therefore a collective noun takes a singular verb (here “is” with “pack”). Therefore, the correct option is A. -
Question 164 of 180
164. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnglishIn the sentence “she sings more beautifully than anyone else”, the adverb “more beautifully” is used to express:
Correct
Explanation: D
The adverb phrase “more beautifully” is a comparative form of the adverb “beautifully.”
It is used to compare the manner of her singing with that of “anyone else.”
Let’s check the options:
A. Frequency → relates to how often something happens (e.g., “She sings often”). Not correct.
B. Manner → relates to how an action is done (e.g., “She sings beautifully”). This is true for “beautifully,” but the addition of “more” changes it into a comparison.
C. Degree → relates to extent/intensity (e.g., “She sings very beautifully”). Not correct here.
D. Comparison → “more beautifully” shows she sings in a manner better than others. This fits perfectly.
Therefore, “more beautifully” expresses comparison.Incorrect
Explanation: D
The adverb phrase “more beautifully” is a comparative form of the adverb “beautifully.”
It is used to compare the manner of her singing with that of “anyone else.”
Let’s check the options:
A. Frequency → relates to how often something happens (e.g., “She sings often”). Not correct.
B. Manner → relates to how an action is done (e.g., “She sings beautifully”). This is true for “beautifully,” but the addition of “more” changes it into a comparison.
C. Degree → relates to extent/intensity (e.g., “She sings very beautifully”). Not correct here.
D. Comparison → “more beautifully” shows she sings in a manner better than others. This fits perfectly.
Therefore, “more beautifully” expresses comparison. -
Question 165 of 180
165. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnglishBread and butter _______ difficult to earn.
Correct
Explanation: A
RULE:
If two subjects are joined by “and”, and they refer to a single entity, the verb will always be singular. Bread and butter is a singular noun which means “livelihood or a person’s source of earning”.Incorrect
Explanation: A
RULE:
If two subjects are joined by “and”, and they refer to a single entity, the verb will always be singular. Bread and butter is a singular noun which means “livelihood or a person’s source of earning”. -
Question 166 of 180
166. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnglishWhere were the guards when the protestor attacked? (Identify the sentence).
Correct
Explanation: C
A complex sentence is a sentence with one independent clause and at least one dependent clause.
RULE: Their distinction is that they contain a dependent clause; only complex sentences and complex-compound sentences have these.
● Complex sentences are easy to spot as they often use subordinating conjunctions such as “because, since, if, until, when, even though, in case, while, now, that” and certain uses of the prepositions “before and after”.
RULE: whether or not to use comma in complex sentence depends on which clause comes first.
• if the dependent clause comes first, place a comma between it and the independent clause. e.g. “when he attacked, where were the guards?”
• if the dependent clause comes first, no comma is needed. e.g. “where were the guards when he attacked?”.
Difference from compound complex sentence: Compound complex sentences consist of two independent clause and one or more dependent (subordinate) clauses.Incorrect
Explanation: C
A complex sentence is a sentence with one independent clause and at least one dependent clause.
RULE: Their distinction is that they contain a dependent clause; only complex sentences and complex-compound sentences have these.
● Complex sentences are easy to spot as they often use subordinating conjunctions such as “because, since, if, until, when, even though, in case, while, now, that” and certain uses of the prepositions “before and after”.
RULE: whether or not to use comma in complex sentence depends on which clause comes first.
• if the dependent clause comes first, place a comma between it and the independent clause. e.g. “when he attacked, where were the guards?”
• if the dependent clause comes first, no comma is needed. e.g. “where were the guards when he attacked?”.
Difference from compound complex sentence: Compound complex sentences consist of two independent clause and one or more dependent (subordinate) clauses. -
Question 167 of 180
167. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnglishWhat I had done, was fail the test. The underlined is:
Correct
Explanation: A
The underlined is a noun clause.
Noun clause gets its name because it is simply a clause that acts like a noun.
Unlike adjective and adverbial clauses, noun clauses (also known as content clauses) do not modify sentence phrases but instead replace them. Much like a noun phrase, a noun clause can be the subject or object of a sentence, naming people, places, things and ideas. One easy way of identifying a noun clause is to memorise which words introduce them:
“How, if, that, what, which, whatever, when, whenever, where, whether, whichever, who, whomever, whoever, whom, whose, why”
Noun clauses can do anything a regular noun can do. This means they can act as a:
→ Subject
→ Direct object
→ Indirect object
→ Prepositional objecting
In this example, “what I had done” is the noun clause acting as the subject of the sentence.Incorrect
Explanation: A
The underlined is a noun clause.
Noun clause gets its name because it is simply a clause that acts like a noun.
Unlike adjective and adverbial clauses, noun clauses (also known as content clauses) do not modify sentence phrases but instead replace them. Much like a noun phrase, a noun clause can be the subject or object of a sentence, naming people, places, things and ideas. One easy way of identifying a noun clause is to memorise which words introduce them:
“How, if, that, what, which, whatever, when, whenever, where, whether, whichever, who, whomever, whoever, whom, whose, why”
Noun clauses can do anything a regular noun can do. This means they can act as a:
→ Subject
→ Direct object
→ Indirect object
→ Prepositional objecting
In this example, “what I had done” is the noun clause acting as the subject of the sentence. -
Question 168 of 180
168. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnglishI looked in the letter box yesterday, ____________.
Correct
Explanation: B
We use the past perfect simple (had + past participle) to talk about time up to a certain point in the past.
We can use the past perfect to show the order of two past events. The past perfect shows the earlier action and the past simple shows the later action.
“When the police arrived, the thief had escaped.”
It doesn’t matter in which order we say the two events. The following sentence has the same meaning.
“The thief had escaped when the police arrived.”Incorrect
Explanation: B
We use the past perfect simple (had + past participle) to talk about time up to a certain point in the past.
We can use the past perfect to show the order of two past events. The past perfect shows the earlier action and the past simple shows the later action.
“When the police arrived, the thief had escaped.”
It doesn’t matter in which order we say the two events. The following sentence has the same meaning.
“The thief had escaped when the police arrived.” -
Question 169 of 180
169. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnglishThe synonym of “predilection” is ______.
Correct
Explanation: A
Predilection means a preference, liking, or special fondness for something.
Check the options:
A. Fondness → direct synonym (both mean “liking” or “preference”).
B. Ignorance → opposite in meaning (lack of knowledge).
C. Disagreement → conflict of opinion, not related.
D. Disharmony → lack of harmony, opposite of agreement/peace.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Predilection means a preference, liking, or special fondness for something.
Check the options:
A. Fondness → direct synonym (both mean “liking” or “preference”).
B. Ignorance → opposite in meaning (lack of knowledge).
C. Disagreement → conflict of opinion, not related.
D. Disharmony → lack of harmony, opposite of agreement/peace. -
Question 170 of 180
170. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnglishAli said, “Man is mortal”.
Correct
Explanation: A
The sentence with universal truth remains the same in indirect speech.
We don’t convert it into past.Incorrect
Explanation: A
The sentence with universal truth remains the same in indirect speech.
We don’t convert it into past. -
Question 171 of 180
171. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnglishWhy were you beating that boy? (Choose the correct voice)
Correct
Explanation: A
The statement is of Past continuous tense. Past continuous tense is changed into passive voice as:
Object + was/were + being + by + subject (doer).Incorrect
Explanation: A
The statement is of Past continuous tense. Past continuous tense is changed into passive voice as:
Object + was/were + being + by + subject (doer). -
Question 172 of 180
172. Question
1 pointsCategory: Logical ReasoningI. It rained heavily throughout the night.
II. The roads were water-logged in the morning.Correct
Explanation A
Statement I:
It rained heavily throughout the night. → A natural event (cause).
Statement II:
The roads were water-logged in the morning. → A consequence of heavy rain.Incorrect
Explanation A
Statement I:
It rained heavily throughout the night. → A natural event (cause).
Statement II:
The roads were water-logged in the morning. → A consequence of heavy rain. -
Question 173 of 180
173. Question
1 pointsCategory: Logical ReasoningStatements: The government has increased the tax on luxury Imported items.
Conclusions:
I. People will stop buying luxury imported items.
II. Government wants to discourage the use of luxury imported items.Correct
Explanation B
Conclusion I:The statement does not say that people will completely stop buying.
At most, demand might reduce, but “stop” is an absolute conclusion not justified.
Conclusion II:Government wants to discourage the use of luxury imported items.
Increasing tax on imported luxuries is usually a policy tool to discourage imports and reduce their use.
This is a logical and reasonable inference.This follows.Incorrect
Explanation B
Conclusion I:The statement does not say that people will completely stop buying.
At most, demand might reduce, but “stop” is an absolute conclusion not justified.
Conclusion II:Government wants to discourage the use of luxury imported items.
Increasing tax on imported luxuries is usually a policy tool to discourage imports and reduce their use.
This is a logical and reasonable inference.This follows. -
Question 174 of 180
174. Question
1 pointsCategory: Logical ReasoningStatement: Should mobile phones be banned in colleges?
Arguments:
i. Yes, they distract students from studies.
ii. No, they are essential tools for modern learning and communication.Correct
Explanation C
Argument I: “Yes, they distract students from studies.”
This is a strong argument because misuse of mobile phones (social media, gaming, texting) can indeed distract students from academic focus. Many institutions already restrict mobile usage during classes for this reason.
Argument II: “No, they are essential tools for modern learning and communication.”
This is also a strong argument because mobile phones provide access to educational websites like Engeecon Academy, online resources, digital libraries, and allow quick communication in emergencies. They are increasingly integrated into modern learning systems.
Since both arguments present valid, logical, and practical points, both I and II are strong.Incorrect
Explanation C
Argument I: “Yes, they distract students from studies.”
This is a strong argument because misuse of mobile phones (social media, gaming, texting) can indeed distract students from academic focus. Many institutions already restrict mobile usage during classes for this reason.
Argument II: “No, they are essential tools for modern learning and communication.”
This is also a strong argument because mobile phones provide access to educational websites like Engeecon Academy, online resources, digital libraries, and allow quick communication in emergencies. They are increasingly integrated into modern learning systems.
Since both arguments present valid, logical, and practical points, both I and II are strong. -
Question 175 of 180
175. Question
1 pointsCategory: Logical ReasoningStatement: Many people die every year in Pakistan due to monsoon floods.
Courses of Action:
I. The government should build proper drainage and embankments.
II. People should be educated on flood precautions.Correct
Explanation: C
Course of Action I:
This is logical because structural measures like embankments and drainage systems help prevent or reduce flooding and its impact.
Course of Action II:
This is also valid. Even with infrastructure, floods may still occur. Educating people on safety measures and evacuation plans can save lives.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Course of Action I:
This is logical because structural measures like embankments and drainage systems help prevent or reduce flooding and its impact.
Course of Action II:
This is also valid. Even with infrastructure, floods may still occur. Educating people on safety measures and evacuation plans can save lives. -
Question 176 of 180
176. Question
1 pointsCategory: Logical ReasoningI. Many schools were closed due to lack of teachers.
II. Petrol prices increased suddenly in the international market.Correct
Explanation C
School closure (I) and petrol price rise (II) have totally different and unrelated causes.Incorrect
Explanation C
School closure (I) and petrol price rise (II) have totally different and unrelated causes. -
Question 177 of 180
177. Question
1 pointsCategory: Logical ReasoningStatement: Pollution in cities has increased alarmingly in the last decade.
Conclusions:
I. Steps must be taken to control pollution.
II. Cars should be banned immediately.Correct
Explanation: A
Conclusion I: The statement indicates a serious problem (alarming pollution).
It is logical to conclude that action is needed. Conclusion I follows.
Conclusion II: The statement does not mention cars as the only cause. “Immediate ban” is an extreme measure, not directly supported by the statement. Conclusion II does not follow.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Conclusion I: The statement indicates a serious problem (alarming pollution).
It is logical to conclude that action is needed. Conclusion I follows.
Conclusion II: The statement does not mention cars as the only cause. “Immediate ban” is an extreme measure, not directly supported by the statement. Conclusion II does not follow. -
Question 178 of 180
178. Question
1 pointsCategory: Logical ReasoningStatement: Should foreign TV channels be completely banned in Pakistan?
Arguments:
i. Yes, they negatively influence our culture and values.
ii. No, they provide exposure to global trends and knowledge.Correct
Explanation C
Argument I: This is a strong argument because exposure to foreign TV channels can indeed bring cultural values that may conflict with local traditions, potentially weakening cultural identity.
It directly addresses the concern in the statement.
Argument II: This is also a strong argument because foreign media gives awareness of new ideas, innovation, science, and cultural diversity.
It provides a valid counterpoint to banning.Incorrect
Explanation C
Argument I: This is a strong argument because exposure to foreign TV channels can indeed bring cultural values that may conflict with local traditions, potentially weakening cultural identity.
It directly addresses the concern in the statement.
Argument II: This is also a strong argument because foreign media gives awareness of new ideas, innovation, science, and cultural diversity.
It provides a valid counterpoint to banning. -
Question 179 of 180
179. Question
1 pointsCategory: Logical ReasoningStatement: Many people in rural areas suffer due to lack of proper healthcare facilities.
Courses of Action:
i. Government should set up more hospitals in rural areas.
ii. Doctors should be encouraged to work in villages.Correct
Explanation C
Course of Action I: This directly addresses the lack of healthcare facilities. Building more hospitals is a logical and long-term solution.
Course of Action II: Even if hospitals are built, they cannot function without doctors. Encouraging doctors to serve in rural areas is equally important and practical.Incorrect
Explanation C
Course of Action I: This directly addresses the lack of healthcare facilities. Building more hospitals is a logical and long-term solution.
Course of Action II: Even if hospitals are built, they cannot function without doctors. Encouraging doctors to serve in rural areas is equally important and practical. -
Question 180 of 180
180. Question
1 pointsCategory: Logical ReasoningI. Many trees were uprooted due to a violent storm.
II. Power supply was disrupted due to Tornado.Correct
Explanation D
A tornado is a type of violent storm. When a tornado occurs, it can both uproot trees and disrupt power supply at the same time.
So, both statements are effects of the same common cause (the violent storm/tornado).Incorrect
Explanation D
A tornado is a type of violent storm. When a tornado occurs, it can both uproot trees and disrupt power supply at the same time.
So, both statements are effects of the same common cause (the violent storm/tornado).